Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is taking a morning break with the unit secretary in the nurses' lounge. The unit secretary says to the nurse, 'I read in Mr. Gage's medical record that he has gonorrhea.' How should the nurse respond to the secretary?

• A. Yes, he does, but be sure not to discuss this with anyone else.
• B. Yes, that's why we've imposed contact precautions.
• C. We can't discuss a client's medical condition.
• D. Oh, really? I didn't see that!

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client's medical condition is confidential and should never be discussed with anyone other than the client and the client's healthcare provider. Therefore, the nurse must tell the unit secretary that the client's condition is not to be discussed. Choices A and B confirm the client's disease, which is inappropriate as it breaches patient confidentiality. Choice D promotes further discussion of the client's condition, which is also inappropriate. The correct response is to firmly state, 'We can't discuss a client's medical condition,' to uphold patient privacy and confidentiality.

2. A nurse is planning task assignments for the day. Which task should the nurse assign to the nursing assistant?

• A. Suctioning a client who requires periodic suctioning
• B. Assessing a client who has undergone an arteriogram and requires close monitoring
• C. Performing colostomy irrigation on a client with an ostomy
• D. Assisting a client who needs frequent ambulation with a walker

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When delegating tasks, a nurse must consider the staff member's education and competency level. Noninvasive tasks like helping a client ambulate with a walker are usually suitable for nursing assistants. Suctioning a client and colostomy irrigation are invasive procedures that require a licensed nurse's skills. Assessing a client post-arteriogram for any complications or changes in condition also necessitates the expertise of a licensed nurse. Therefore, the most appropriate task to assign to a nursing assistant is assisting a client who needs frequent ambulation with a walker.

3. Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to developing heartburn as a result of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

• A. lettuce
• B. eggs
• C. chocolate
• D. butterscotch

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is chocolate. Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Lettuce and eggs do not significantly affect LES pressure, making them less likely to trigger GERD symptoms. Butterscotch, like lettuce and eggs, does not have a notable effect on LES pressure, so it is not as likely to worsen GERD symptoms as chocolate. Therefore, chocolate is the food to be avoided by clients prone to heartburn due to GERD.

4. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should they measure?

• A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When selecting the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway, the healthcare provider should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to maintain a clear air passage for exchange. Measuring from the corner of the eye to the top of the ear (Choice B) is inaccurate and not a standard measurement for selecting the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the tip of the chin to the sternum (Choice C) is irrelevant to determining the correct size of the airway. Similarly, measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe (Choice D) is also incorrect and does not provide the necessary measurement for selecting an oropharyngeal airway size.

5. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

Similar Questions