Nursing Elites

1. During a general survey of a patient, which finding is considered normal?

• A. Body mass index (BMI) of 20.
• B. When standing, the patient's base is narrow.
• C. The patient appears older than their stated age.
• D. Arm span (fingertip to fingertip) is greater than the height.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A body mass index (BMI) of 20 is considered normal as the range for a normal BMI is between 19-24. When standing, a patient's base should be wide for stability and proper weight distribution. An older appearance than the stated age may indicate a history of chronic illness or chronic alcoholism. In a general survey, the patient's arm span (fingertip to fingertip) should approximately equal the patient's height. An arm span greater than the height may suggest Marfan syndrome. Therefore, the correct choice is a normal BMI of 20, which falls within the healthy range. Choices B, C, and D all describe abnormal findings that may indicate underlying health conditions or syndromes.

2. Which body plane divides the body into right and left sides?

• A. Frontal Plane
• B. Medial Plane
• C. Median Plane
• D. Transverse Plane

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the Median Plane, also known as the sagittal plane. It divides the body into right and left sides. The Frontal Plane, or coronal plane, divides the body into front and back sections. The Transverse Plane divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) sections. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically divide the body into right and left sides.

3. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for reducing the risk of infection during the post-operative period?

• A. Flush the central line with heparin at least every four hours
• B. Administer narcotic analgesics as needed
• C. Remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory
• D. Order a high-protein diet for the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action to reduce the risk of infection during the post-operative period is to remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory. Urinary catheters can serve as a source of bacteria, increasing the risk of infection in the bladder or urethra. By removing the catheter promptly once the client is mobile, the risk of infection can be minimized. Option A, flushing the central line with heparin, is not directly related to reducing urinary tract infections. Option B, administering narcotic analgesics as needed, is important for pain management but does not directly address infection prevention. Option D, ordering a high-protein diet, may be beneficial for wound healing but does not specifically target infection risk reduction in the post-operative period.

4. A client is having difficulties reading an educational pamphlet. He cannot find his glasses. In order to read the words, he must hold the pamphlet at arm's length, which allows him to read the information. Which vision deficit does this client most likely suffer from?

• A. Cataracts
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Astigmatism
• D. Presbyopia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Presbyopia is a condition that occurs when the lens of the eye loses accommodation and is unable to focus light on objects nearby. As a result, clients are unable to see or read items up close but may have success when holding the same item at arm's length. Many clients with presbyopia must wear bifocals, but long-distance vision remains unaffected. Cataracts involve clouding of the eye's lens, leading to blurry vision. Glaucoma is associated with increased intraocular pressure that damages the optic nerve, causing vision loss. Astigmatism is a refractive error where the cornea or lens has an irregular shape, leading to distorted or blurred vision.

5. What would be an appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write based on the client's ability to state only two signs of impaired circulation out of three as expected?

• A. Client understands the signs of impaired circulation
• B. Goal met: Client cited numbness and tingling as a sign of impaired circulation
• C. Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation
• D. Goal not met: Client unable to describe signs of impaired circulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write would be 'Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation.' In this scenario, the client has only identified two out of the three signs of impaired circulation specified in the desired outcome. Therefore, the goal has not been fully achieved. It is essential in nursing practice to assess and document client progress accurately. While the client has shown some understanding by correctly identifying numbness and tingling as signs of impaired circulation, the inability to state the third sign indicates an incomplete achievement of the goal. This evaluation helps guide further interventions or educational strategies to help the client meet the desired outcome in the care plan.

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