Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

• A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
• B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
• C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
• D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

2. The student observes a patient with no breathing problems. Which action by the student indicates a need to review respiratory assessment skills?

• A. The student starts at the apices of the lungs and moves to the bases.
• B. The student compares breath sounds from side to side, avoiding bony areas.
• C. The student places the stethoscope over the posterior chest and listens during expiration.
• D. The student instructs the patient to breathe slowly and a little more deeply than normal through the mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Listening only during inspiration instead of both inspiration and expiration indicates a need for a review of respiratory assessment skills. During chest auscultation, it is essential to listen to at least one cycle of inspiration and expiration at each placement of the stethoscope. Instructing the patient to breathe slowly and a little deeper than normal through the mouth is a correct practice during auscultation. The correct sequence for lung auscultation is from the apices to the bases, comparing breath sounds bilaterally, avoiding bony areas. It is crucial to place the stethoscope over lung tissue rather than bony prominences to accurately assess lung sounds.

3. When providing culturally competent care, nurses must incorporate cultural assessments into their health assessments. Which statement is most appropriate to use when initiating an assessment of cultural beliefs with an older American Indian patient?

• A. "Are you of the Christian faith?"?
• B. "Do you want to see a medicine man?"?
• C. "How often do you seek help from medical providers?"?
• D. "What cultural or spiritual beliefs are important to you?"?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse needs to assess the cultural beliefs and practices of the patient and should ask questions in a way that communicates acceptance of their beliefs and allows for open communication. Therefore, the most appropriate question to initiate an assessment of cultural beliefs with an older American Indian patient is "What cultural or spiritual beliefs are important to you?"? This question shows respect for the patient's beliefs and encourages them to share relevant information. Asking if they are of the Christian faith does not promote open communication and may not reflect the patient's actual beliefs. While some American Indians may seek assistance from a medicine man or shaman, it is not appropriate to make assumptions without direct input from the patient. Asking how often they seek help from medical providers is not directly related to understanding their cultural beliefs and may not provide relevant insights for culturally competent care.

4. During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first?

• A. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain
• B. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia
• C. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C)
• D. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing patient assessments, the nurse should address the patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an elevated oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C) first. This presentation suggests a potential infection, which is critical to address promptly in a patient with liver disease. An infection in a patient with cirrhosis can quickly progress to severe complications. The other options, such as chronic pancreatitis with abdominal pain, compensated cirrhosis with anorexia, and post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy with shoulder pain, do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation requiring urgent assessment compared to a possible infection in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites.

5. A resident brings several electronic devices to a nursing home. One of the devices has a two-pronged plug. What rationale should the nurse provide when explaining why an electrical device must have a three-pronged plug?

• A. Controls stray electrical currents.
• B. Promotes efficient use of electricity.
• C. Shuts off the appliance if there is an electrical surge.
• D. Divides the electricity among the appliances in the room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A three-pronged plug functions as a ground to dissipate stray electrical currents. This helps prevent electrical shocks and ensures the safety of the user. Choice B is incorrect because the number of prongs on a plug does not impact the efficient use of electricity. Choice C is incorrect because a three-pronged plug does not shut off the appliance during an electrical surge; that role is typically fulfilled by surge protectors. Choice D is incorrect as a three-pronged plug does not divide electricity among appliances in a room; it primarily serves as a safety measure to handle excess electrical currents.

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