Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

• A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
• B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
• C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
• D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

2. The healthcare professional is preparing to percuss the abdomen of a patient. What characteristic of the underlying tissue does percussion assess?

• A. Turgor
• B. Texture
• C. Density
• D. Consistency

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Percussion is a technique used to assess the density of underlying organs by producing sounds that help determine their location and size. Turgor, texture, and consistency are primarily assessed through palpation, not percussion. Turgor refers to skin elasticity, texture pertains to the feel of the tissue surface, and consistency relates to the firmness or resistance of the tissue.

3. A client who complains of nausea and seems anxious is admitted to the nursing unit. The nurse should take which of the following actions regarding completion of the admission interview?

• A. Help the client to get settled and conduct the interview the next morning when the client is rested
• B. Conduct the interview immediately, directing the majority of the questions to the client
• C. Conduct the interview as soon as uninterrupted time is available to address the client's concerns
• D. Ask the charge nurse to interview the client while the admitting nurse calls the doctor for anti-nausea and anti-anxiety medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When dealing with a client who is experiencing nausea and anxiety, it is important to promptly conduct the admission interview to address their concerns. This allows for the collection of accurate data while attending to the client's immediate needs. Delaying the interview until the next morning (Choice A) may not be in the best interest of the client as timely assessment and intervention are essential. Directing questions to the client's spouse (Choice B) may not provide accurate information from the client themselves. Asking another nurse to conduct the interview while administering medications (Choice D) does not prioritize building a therapeutic relationship with the client, which is crucial in addressing their concerns and providing holistic care.

4. What are Korotkoff sounds?

• A. Sounds noted during diastole.
• B. The result of the vibration of blood against artery walls while blood pressure readings are being taken.
• C. Sounds only noted by skilled cardiologists.
• D. Distinct sounds which are classified into 6 phases.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Korotkoff sounds are the sounds that occur when blood flows in an artery that has been temporarily compressed during a blood pressure measurement. These sounds result from the vibration of blood against the artery walls as the pressure cuff is released. There are five distinct phases of Korotkoff sounds, which healthcare providers are trained to identify during blood pressure assessment. The correct answer, choice B, accurately describes the nature of Korotkoff sounds and how they are generated. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Korotkoff sounds are not specific to diastole, not limited to skilled cardiologists, and categorized into five phases, not six.

5. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

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