NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Prep
1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?
- A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
- B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
- C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
- D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.
2. The client is being discharged to a long-term care (LTC) facility. The nurse is preparing a progress note to communicate to the LTC staff the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not. To do this effectively, the nurse should:
- A. Formulate post-discharge nursing diagnoses
- B. Draw conclusion about resolution of current client problems
- C. Assess the client for baseline data to be used at the LTC facility
- D. Plan the care that is needed in the LTC facility
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To effectively communicate the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not to the LTC staff, the nurse should draw conclusions about the resolution of the current client problems. Terminal evaluation is performed to determine the client's condition at discharge, focusing on which goals were achieved and which were not. Formulating post-discharge nursing diagnoses (option A) is not the most appropriate action in this scenario as it focuses on identifying potential problems after discharge rather than evaluating achieved goals. Assessing the client for baseline data (option C) is not necessary at this point as the focus is on evaluating outcomes rather than collecting baseline data. Planning the care needed in the LTC facility (option D) is premature as this should be done on admission to the LTC facility and not during the discharge process.
3. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?
- A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
- B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
- C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
- D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.
4. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?
- A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
- B. Only the patient
- C. Only the healthcare proxy
- D. The doctor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.
5. What is the primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference?
- A. the patient's ability to pay for the costs of their care
- B. how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs
- C. the patient's physical status and condition
- D. the patient's psychosocial status and condition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference is to determine how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs. These meetings involve discussions among healthcare professionals to tailor the care plan to the specific needs and preferences of the patient. Option A is incorrect because financial discussions are generally not the primary focus of patient care meetings. Option C is incorrect as the patient's physical status is usually already known and is not the primary purpose of the meeting. Option D is incorrect as psychosocial aspects, while important, are not the sole focus of the meeting, which is primarily about addressing the patient's overall needs and preferences.
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