Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

• A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
• B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
• C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
• D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

2. Which is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection?

• A. Thorough hand hygiene
• B. Wearing gloves and masks when providing direct client care
• C. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions
• D. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thorough hand hygiene is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection as hands are a common source of transmission. Regular and routine hand hygiene helps prevent the movement of potentially infective materials. Wearing gloves and masks is important when providing direct client care to protect both the caregiver and the patient, but it is not as effective as thorough hand hygiene in preventing overall infection spread. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions is necessary for clients with known communicable diseases, but it is not as universally effective in preventing the spread of various infections. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics is not an appropriate measure for controlling the spread of infection as routine use can lead to superinfection and the development of resistant organisms.

3. What procedure examines a portion of the large intestine with an endoscope?

• A. Colposcopy
• B. Sigmoidoscopy
• C. Upper GI
• D. Cardiac catheterization

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sigmoidoscopy is the correct answer because it specifically examines the sigmoid colon located in the descending colon using an endoscope inserted through the rectum. This procedure captures video and images of the large intestine's lining, helping in the diagnosis of conditions like inflammatory bowel disease or colorectal cancer. Colposcopy, on the other hand, is a procedure for examining the cervix and vagina, not the large intestine. Upper GI involves capturing images of the esophagus and stomach, focusing on the upper gastrointestinal tract, not the large intestine. Cardiac catheterization is a procedure that involves threading a thin instrument through the femoral artery to the heart, used for cardiac interventions and not related to examining the large intestine.

4. When turning an immobile bedridden client without assistance, which action by the nurse best ensures client safety?

• A. Securely grasp the client's arm and leg.
• B. Put bed rails up on the side of bed opposite from the nurse.
• C. Correctly position and use a turn sheet.
• D. Lower the head of the client's bed slowly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When turning an immobile bedridden client without assistance, the best action to ensure client safety is to put bed rails up on the side of the bed opposite from the nurse. This is important because the nurse can only stand on one side of the bed, so having bed rails on the opposite side prevents the client from falling out of bed. Option A, which suggests securely grasping the client's arm and leg, can potentially cause client injury to the skin or joints. Options C and D, correctly positioning and using a turn sheet, and lowering the head of the client's bed slowly, respectively, are useful techniques during client turning but are of lower priority in terms of safety compared to the use of bed rails.

5. Intermittent fevers are:

• A. fevers which come and go.
• B. fevers which rise and fall but are always considered above the patient's average temperature.
• C. fevers which fluctuate more than three degrees and never return to normal.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intermittent fevers are characterized by periods of fever followed by periods of normal body temperature. They alternate between being febrile and afebrile. Continuous fevers show minimal fluctuations over a 24-hour period, while remittent fevers fluctuate significantly but do return to normal body temperature. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes intermittent fevers. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not fully capture the defining characteristic of intermittent fevers, which involve cyclical episodes of fever and normal temperature. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific definition for intermittent fevers.

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