Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

• A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
• B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
• C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
• D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

2. As a charge nurse, what is your primary responsibility for a 50-year-old blind and deaf patient admitted to your floor?

• A. Inform others about the patient's deficits.
• B. Communicate patient safety concerns to your supervisor.
• C. Provide continuous updates to the patient about the social environment.
• D. Provide a secure environment for the patient.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary responsibility of the charge nurse for a blind and deaf patient is to provide a secure environment. Ensuring patient safety is crucial to prevent medical errors and adverse outcomes. By creating a safe environment, the nurse can protect the patient from harm and promote well-being. Option A is incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring patient safety rather than highlighting deficits. Option B is not the primary responsibility in this scenario, as the immediate concern is the patient's safety. Option C is irrelevant and does not address the patient's primary needs, which are safety and security.

3. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 3-year-old patient who appears to have an irregular respiratory pattern. How would the nurse assess this child's respirations?

• A. Respirations should be counted for 1 full minute.
• B. Child's pulse and respirations should be simultaneously checked for 30 seconds and then multiplied by 2.
• C. Child's respirations should be checked for a minimum of 5 minutes to identify any variations in his or her respiratory pattern.
• D. Patient's respirations should be counted for 15 seconds and then multiplied by 4.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To accurately assess a child's respiratory pattern, the nurse should count respirations for a full minute. This duration provides a comprehensive view of the child's breathing pattern, ensuring abnormalities are not missed. Counting for only 30 seconds may not capture irregularities effectively. Checking respirations for 5 minutes is excessive and unnecessary for a routine assessment. Counting for 15 seconds and multiplying by 4 is not as precise as a full-minute count. Pulse and respirations should not be checked simultaneously; instead, the nurse should count respirations unobtrusively while appearing to take the child's pulse. Therefore, the correct approach is to count the child's respirations for 1 full minute to obtain an accurate assessment.

4. According to the American Heart Association standards, high-quality CPR for an adult includes all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Push hard
• B. Push fast
• C. Allow chest recoil between compressions
• D. Pause CPR as each drug is administered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High-quality CPR for adults should not be paused for drug administration. The correct CPR technique involves pushing hard and fast, at a rate of at least 100 compressions per minute and to a depth of at least 2 inches. It is also essential to allow chest recoil between compressions to enable proper blood circulation. Pausing CPR for drug administration would delay the delivery of continuous chest compressions, which are crucial for maintaining blood flow and oxygenation during cardiac arrest.

5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with a diagnosis of Risk for Activity Intolerance?

• A. Perform nursing activities throughout the entire shift
• B. Assess for signs of increased muscle tone
• C. Minimize environmental noise
• D. Teach clients to perform the Valsalva maneuver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client diagnosed with Risk for Activity Intolerance is to minimize environmental noise. Environmental noise can increase the energy demand on the client as they try to manage their responses to stimuli. By reducing excess noise, the nurse helps promote rest and conserves the client's energy, which is crucial in managing activity intolerance. Choice A is incorrect because increasing nursing activities may exacerbate the client's intolerance to activity. Choice B is incorrect as assessing for signs of increased muscle tone does not directly address the issue of activity intolerance. Choice D is incorrect as teaching the Valsalva maneuver is not relevant to managing activity intolerance in this scenario.

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