Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

• A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
• B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
• C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
• D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

2. An older adult patient brought to the emergency department by a family member is wandering outside, saying, "I can't find my way home."? The patient is confused and unable to answer questions. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Document the patient's mental status and obtain other assessment data from the family member.
• B. Record the patient's answers to questions on the nursing assessment form.
• C. Ask an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview.
• D. Call for a mental health advocate to maintain the patient's rights.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is confused and unable to answer questions. When the patient is unable to provide information, it is important to use secondary sources such as family members. The nurse's best action is to document the patient's mental status and obtain additional assessment data from the family member. This approach will help gather relevant information about the patient's condition. Asking an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview is not necessary as it is within the staff nurse's scope of practice. Calling for a mental health advocate is also unnecessary at this point as the priority is to assess the patient's condition and gather information from the family member.

3. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?

• A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
• B. Only the patient
• C. Only the healthcare proxy
• D. The doctor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.

4. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

5. When is a physician likely to assess turgor?

• A. When iron deficiency is suspected.
• B. When heart and lung issues are suspected.
• C. When dehydration is suspected.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.

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