Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

• A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
• B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
• C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
• D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

2. The nursing diagnosis is Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility and pressure secondary to pain and presence of a cast. Which of the following desired outcomes should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Client will be able to turn self by day 3
• B. Skin will remain intact and without redness during hospital stay
• C. Client will state pain relieved within 30 minutes after medication
• D. Pressure will be prevented by repositioning client every 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct desired outcome for a nursing diagnosis of 'Risk for impaired skin integrity' is to ensure that the skin remains intact and without redness during the hospital stay. This outcome directly addresses the risk identified in the diagnosis. Option A focuses on addressing immobility, which is not the priority for this diagnosis. Option C deals with pain relief, which is a separate concern. Option D is an intervention involving pressure prevention through repositioning, rather than an outcome related to skin integrity.

3. When dismissing a 5-year-old boy from the pediatrics unit, what type of seat belt restraint should the child wear as the parents drive the car to the front door of the hospital?

• A. A 5-point restraint in the back seat, facing backward
• B. A booster seat with a lap and shoulder belt in the back seat
• C. A lap belt in the back seat
• D. A lap and shoulder belt in the front seat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A 5-year-old child riding in a car should use a restraint system for safety. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend that children under 13 years should not ride in the front seat of a car due to safety concerns. For a 5-year-old child, a booster seat with a lap and shoulder belt in the back seat is the most appropriate choice. This setup ensures proper protection and restraint for the child's size and age. Choice A is incorrect because a 5-point restraint system facing backward is not suitable for a 5-year-old child in a car. Choice C is incorrect as a lap belt alone does not provide adequate protection for a child of this age. Choice D is incorrect as children should not be seated in the front seat, especially at this young age.

4. Which is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection?

• A. Thorough hand hygiene
• B. Wearing gloves and masks when providing direct client care
• C. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions
• D. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thorough hand hygiene is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection as hands are a common source of transmission. Regular and routine hand hygiene helps prevent the movement of potentially infective materials. Wearing gloves and masks is important when providing direct client care to protect both the caregiver and the patient, but it is not as effective as thorough hand hygiene in preventing overall infection spread. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions is necessary for clients with known communicable diseases, but it is not as universally effective in preventing the spread of various infections. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics is not an appropriate measure for controlling the spread of infection as routine use can lead to superinfection and the development of resistant organisms.

5. In the Gram Stain procedure, which component acts as the mordant?

• A. Crystal violet
• B. Methyl alcohol
• C. Iodine
• D. Safranin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Gram Stain procedure, the mordant is Gram's Iodine. The purpose of the mordant is to form a complex with the crystal violet, enhancing its ability to bind to the cell wall. Crystal violet is actually the primary stain used in the Gram Stain procedure to initially color all cells. Methyl alcohol is the decolorizer that removes the crystal violet from certain cell types. Safranin is the counterstain used to stain those cells that did not retain the crystal violet stain after the decolorization step.

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