NCLEX-RN
Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions
1. A client is post-op day #1 after a hemilaminectomy. The nurse removes the dressing as ordered and notes that the incision appears slightly red, with a small amount of serous drainage coming from the site. The edges of the incision are approximated. What is the next action of the nurse?
- A. Assist the client to shower as ordered and monitor the site for further changes
- B. Instruct the client to lie prone to allow the site to dry
- C. Place antibiotic ointment and a sterile dressing over the site
- D. Notify the physician for an antibiotic order
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An incision that appears slightly red with a small amount of serous drainage on the first day following surgery is going through a normal healing process. It is important to keep the incision clean. In this case, the nurse should assist the client to shower as ordered to maintain hygiene and monitor for changes in the incision site. Instructing the client to lie prone may not be necessary and could cause discomfort. Applying antibiotic ointment without a specific order is not recommended as it can interfere with the healing process. Notifying the physician for an antibiotic order is premature at this stage since the incision is showing normal signs of healing.
2. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for reducing the risk of infection during the post-operative period?
- A. Flush the central line with heparin at least every four hours
- B. Administer narcotic analgesics as needed
- C. Remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory
- D. Order a high-protein diet for the client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action to reduce the risk of infection during the post-operative period is to remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory. Urinary catheters can serve as a source of bacteria, increasing the risk of infection in the bladder or urethra. By removing the catheter promptly once the client is mobile, the risk of infection can be minimized. Option A, flushing the central line with heparin, is not directly related to reducing urinary tract infections. Option B, administering narcotic analgesics as needed, is important for pain management but does not directly address infection prevention. Option D, ordering a high-protein diet, may be beneficial for wound healing but does not specifically target infection risk reduction in the post-operative period.
3. The nursing diagnosis is Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility and pressure secondary to pain and presence of a cast. Which of the following desired outcomes should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Client will be able to turn self by day 3
- B. Skin will remain intact and without redness during hospital stay
- C. Client will state pain relieved within 30 minutes after medication
- D. Pressure will be prevented by repositioning client every 2 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct desired outcome for a nursing diagnosis of 'Risk for impaired skin integrity' is to ensure that the skin remains intact and without redness during the hospital stay. This outcome directly addresses the risk identified in the diagnosis. Option A focuses on addressing immobility, which is not the priority for this diagnosis. Option C deals with pain relief, which is a separate concern. Option D is an intervention involving pressure prevention through repositioning, rather than an outcome related to skin integrity.
4. What is the correct action regarding thigh pressure when comparing it to arm pressure in an adolescent with high blood pressure?
- A. The popliteal artery should be auscultated to obtain thigh pressure.
- B. The best position to measure thigh pressure is the prone position.
- C. If the blood pressure in the arm is high in an adolescent, then it should be compared with the thigh pressure.
- D. Thigh pressure is generally higher than arm pressure due to the proximity to the heart and the size of the popliteal vessels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When blood pressure measured in the arm is significantly elevated, especially in adolescents and young adults, it is crucial to compare it with thigh pressure to assess for coarctation of the aorta. The popliteal artery, not the femoral artery, should be auscultated for the thigh pressure reading as the femoral artery is closer to the placement of the blood pressure cuff. Generally, thigh pressure is higher than arm pressure; however, if there is coarctation of the artery, arm pressures can be higher than thigh pressures. The preferred position for measuring thigh pressure is the prone position, not supine, with the knee slightly bent to facilitate accurate readings.
5. The client is a chronic carrier of infection. To prevent the spread of the infection to other clients or healthcare providers, the nurse emphasizes interventions that do which of the following? (Berman & Snyder, 2012, p. 713)
- A. Eliminate the reservoir
- B. Block the portal of exit from the reservoir
- C. Block the portal of entry into the host
- D. Decrease the susceptibility of the host
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To prevent the spread of infection from a chronic carrier, the nurse should focus on blocking the portal of exit from the reservoir, which is the carrier person. By preventing the movement of the organism from the reservoir, the infection can be contained. Eliminating the reservoir is not feasible in this case as the carrier is a chronic carrier. Blocking the portal of entry into the host or decreasing the susceptibility of the host would only impact individual prevention and not the spread from the carrier to others.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access