a nurse is assessing a client who is post op day 1 after a hemilaminectomy the nurse removes the dressing as ordered and notes that the incision appea
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions

1. A client is post-op day #1 after a hemilaminectomy. The nurse removes the dressing as ordered and notes that the incision appears slightly red, with a small amount of serous drainage coming from the site. The edges of the incision are approximated. What is the next action of the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An incision that appears slightly red with a small amount of serous drainage on the first day following surgery is going through a normal healing process. It is important to keep the incision clean. In this case, the nurse should assist the client to shower as ordered to maintain hygiene and monitor for changes in the incision site. Instructing the client to lie prone may not be necessary and could cause discomfort. Applying antibiotic ointment without a specific order is not recommended as it can interfere with the healing process. Notifying the physician for an antibiotic order is premature at this stage since the incision is showing normal signs of healing.

2. What does the term 'Afferent Nerve' mean?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Carrying an impulse to the brain.' Afferent nerves are sensory nerves that carry signals from sensory receptors towards the central nervous system, including the brain. Choice B, 'Carrying an impulse away from the brain,' is incorrect as this describes efferent nerves which carry signals from the central nervous system to muscles and glands. Choice C, 'Carrying impulses to the motor neurons of the appendicular muscles,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of nerve function. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the correct definition of afferent nerve is indeed 'Carrying an impulse to the brain.'

3. The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old male patient. Which assessment finding would be considered normal?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an 80-year-old male patient, the presence of kyphosis (rounded upper back) and flexion in bilateral knees and hips are considered normal age-related changes. These postural changes are commonly seen in older adults due to structural changes in the spine and joints. Option A is incorrect as aging individuals typically experience a decrease in body weight, not an increase. Option B is also incorrect as there is usually a decrease in subcutaneous fat from the face and periphery, rather than an increase in fat deposits in specific areas. Option D is incorrect because the change in overall body proportion with aging usually involves a shorter trunk and relatively longer extremities, not the other way around. This is because long bones do not shorten with age, leading to this characteristic change in body proportions.

4. A patient's blood pressure is 118/82 mm Hg. The patient asks the nurse, "What do the numbers mean?"? Which is the best reply by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The systolic pressure is the maximum pressure felt on the artery during left ventricular contraction, or systole. The diastolic pressure is the elastic recoil, or resting, pressure that the blood constantly exerts in between each contraction. The nurse should answer the patient's question in terms they can understand and not just say it is normal and there is nothing to worry about. The diastolic pressure is the pressure in the vessels when the heart is at rest, not the stroke volume. Both the systolic and diastolic blood pressure are important. Choice A is incorrect as providing a vague reassurance does not address the patient's query. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the diastolic pressure as reflecting stroke volume, which is incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the explanation, focusing solely on the top number without providing a complete understanding of blood pressure.

5. The patient with migraine headaches has a seizure. After the seizure, which action can you delegate to the nursing assistant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a patient with migraine headaches has a seizure, it is important to assess their vital signs to monitor their condition. This task can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant as it falls within their scope of practice. Documenting the seizure and performing neurologic checks require a higher level of training and should be done by a nurse or healthcare provider. Restraint should never be used as a first-line intervention after a seizure unless there is an immediate threat to the patient's safety, and it should be done following proper protocols and with appropriate training.

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