Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing vital signs in pediatric patients. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?

• A. 11-year-old male: 90 BPM, 22 RPM, 100/70 mmHg
• B. 13-year-old female: 105 BPM, 22 RPM, 105/50 mmHg
• C. 5-year-old male: 102 BPM, 24 RPM, 90/65 mmHg
• D. 6-year-old female: 100 BPM, 26 RPM, 90/70 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal range of vital signs for pediatric patients varies with age. For 11 to 14-year-olds, the normal vital sign ranges are: Heart rate: 60-105 BPM; Respiratory rate: 12-20 RPM; Blood pressure: Systolic 85-120 mmHg, Diastolic 55-80 mmHg. The 13-year-old female in choice B has a diastolic blood pressure below the normal range, indicating hypotension. Additionally, her heart rate is at the upper limit of normal, and her respiratory rate is within normal limits. Choices A, C, and D all fall within the normal ranges for vital signs in pediatric patients.

2. A 55-year-old patient admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice and nausea has abnormal liver function studies, but serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Is there any history of IV drug use?
• B. Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?
• C. Are you taking corticosteroids for any reason?
• D. Have you recently traveled to a foreign country?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask in this scenario is whether the patient uses any over-the-counter drugs. The patient's symptoms, negative serologic testing for viral hepatitis, and sudden onset of symptoms point towards toxic hepatitis, which can be triggered by commonly used over-the-counter medications like acetaminophen (Tylenol). Asking about IV drug use is relevant for viral hepatitis, not toxic hepatitis. Inquiring about recent travel to a foreign country is more pertinent to potential exposure to infectious agents causing viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use is not typically associated with the symptoms described in the case.

3. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?

• A. Altered tissue perfusion
• B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
• C. High risk for hemorrhage
• D. Risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When the membranes are ruptured for more than 24 hours prior to birth, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, foul-smelling vaginal discharge, and uterine tenderness, is crucial. Option A, 'Altered tissue perfusion,' is not the priority in this scenario as infection risk takes precedence due to the prolonged rupture of membranes. Option B, 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' is less of a priority compared to the immediate risk of infection. Option C, 'High risk for hemorrhage,' is not the priority concern at this time based on the information provided.

4. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

5. The healthcare professional in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing lab results, the healthcare professional finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?

• A. Start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm
• B. Ask the patient for a stool sample
• C. Prepare to insert an NG Tube
• D. Administer intramuscular morphine sulfate as ordered

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention in this scenario is to start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm. The patient's low blood pressure (95/60) and elevated pulse rate (110 beats per minute) indicate a potential hemorrhage, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation. Starting a large-bore IV will allow for rapid administration of fluids to stabilize the patient's condition. Asking for a stool sample, preparing to insert an NG tube, or administering morphine sulfate should not take precedence over addressing the hemodynamic instability and potential hemorrhage observed in the patient. These actions may be considered later in the patient's care, but the primary focus should be on addressing the critical issue of fluid replacement and stabilization.

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