Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing vital signs in pediatric patients. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?

• A. 11-year-old male: 90 BPM, 22 RPM, 100/70 mmHg
• B. 13-year-old female: 105 BPM, 22 RPM, 105/50 mmHg
• C. 5-year-old male: 102 BPM, 24 RPM, 90/65 mmHg
• D. 6-year-old female: 100 BPM, 26 RPM, 90/70 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal range of vital signs for pediatric patients varies with age. For 11 to 14-year-olds, the normal vital sign ranges are: Heart rate: 60-105 BPM; Respiratory rate: 12-20 RPM; Blood pressure: Systolic 85-120 mmHg, Diastolic 55-80 mmHg. The 13-year-old female in choice B has a diastolic blood pressure below the normal range, indicating hypotension. Additionally, her heart rate is at the upper limit of normal, and her respiratory rate is within normal limits. Choices A, C, and D all fall within the normal ranges for vital signs in pediatric patients.

2. The nurse admits a patient who has a diagnosis of an acute asthma attack. Which statement indicates that the patient may need teaching regarding medication use?

• A. I have not had any acute asthma attacks during the last year.
• B. I became short of breath an hour before coming to the hospital.
• C. I've been taking Tylenol 650 mg every 6 hours for chest-wall pain.
• D. I've been using my albuterol inhaler more frequently over the last 4 days.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I've been using my albuterol inhaler more frequently over the last 4 days.' This statement indicates that the patient may need teaching regarding medication use because an increased need for a rapid-acting bronchodilator suggests an exacerbation of asthma. The patient should be educated on recognizing worsening symptoms and the appropriate actions to take. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to asthma exacerbation or the need for medication teaching, making them incorrect. Choice A reflects a lack of recent acute asthma attacks, while choice B describes shortness of breath unrelated to medication use. Choice C mentions Tylenol use for chest-wall pain, which is not indicative of asthma exacerbation or medication teaching needs.

3. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination
• B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination is the correct action. Bowel prep is crucial for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) as it helps in achieving better visualization of the bladder and ureters. Instructing the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination (Choice A) is not the appropriate preparation for an IVP. Restricting the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination (Choice B) is not necessary for this test. Informing the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary (Choice D) is not relevant to the preparation process for an IVP.

4. What is the cause of meningitis that is fatal in half of the infected patients?

• A. Virus
• B. Bacteria
• C. Fungus
• D. Noninfectious agent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bacterial meningitis is caused by bacterial pathogens such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Neisseria meningitidis. These bacteria commonly lead to acute onset meningitis, presenting with symptoms like fever, stiff neck, and altered consciousness. The statement that bacterial meningitis is fatal in about 50% of cases is accurate, making it a serious and life-threatening condition. Viruses can also cause meningitis, but they are not typically associated with the high fatality rate seen in bacterial meningitis. Fungal meningitis is less common and usually affects individuals with weakened immune systems. Noninfectious agents do not cause meningitis.

5. The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old following spinal fusion for scoliosis. Which of the following interventions is appropriate in the immediate post-operative period?

• A. Raise the head of the bed at least 30 degrees
• B. Encourage ambulation within 24 hours
• C. Maintain in a flat position, logrolling as needed
• D. Encourage leg contraction and relaxation after 48 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the immediate post-operative period following spinal fusion for scoliosis in a 13-year-old, it is important to maintain the patient in a flat position and perform logrolling as needed. This helps prevent injury to the surgical site and ensures proper spinal alignment. Raising the head of the bed at least 30 degrees is contraindicated as it can put strain on the surgical site. Encouraging ambulation within 24 hours may be appropriate in the recovery process but not in the immediate post-operative period. Encouraging leg contraction and relaxation after 48 hours may also be part of the rehabilitation process but is not a priority in the immediate post-operative period.

Similar Questions