NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Clinical manifestations of asthma include:
- A. Decreased expiratory time
- B. Increased peak expiratory flow
- C. Increased use of accessory muscles
- D. Increased oxygen saturation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clinical manifestations of asthma include increased use of accessory muscles, increased expiratory time, increased peak expiratory flow, and decreased oxygen saturation. Choice A, 'Decreased expiratory time,' is incorrect because asthma typically presents with increased expiratory time due to airway obstruction. Choice B, 'Increased peak expiratory flow,' is incorrect as asthma commonly leads to decreased peak expiratory flow due to airway constriction. Choice D, 'Increased oxygen saturation,' is incorrect because asthma exacerbations often result in decreased oxygen saturation levels.
2. A man is prescribed lithium to treat bipolar disorder. The nurse is most concerned about lithium toxicity when he notices which of these assessment findings?
- A. The patient states he had a manic episode a week ago
- B. The patient states he has been having diarrhea every day
- C. The patient presents as severely depressed
- D. The patient has a rash and pruritus on his arms and legs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is when the patient states he has been having diarrhea every day. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, which can increase the risk of lithium toxicity. The other options, such as a manic episode, severe depression, or rash and pruritus, are not directly associated with an increased risk of lithium toxicity.
3. The parent of an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease is receiving feeding instructions from the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse give to the parent to assist in reducing the episodes of emesis?
- A. Provide smaller, more frequent feedings.
- B. Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
- C. Thin the feedings by adding water to the formula.
- D. Thicken the feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves the backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to sphincter issues. To reduce episodes of emesis, it is recommended to thicken feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula. This helps to weigh down the contents in the stomach, making regurgitation less likely. Providing smaller, more frequent feedings and burping the infant frequently are beneficial strategies for gastroesophageal reflux. However, in this case, thickening the feedings is the most appropriate intervention. Thinning the feedings by adding water to the formula is not recommended as it can decrease the caloric density of the formula and may not help in reducing reflux.
4. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?
- A. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.
- B. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea
- C. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute
- D. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.
5. One hour after a thoracotomy, a patient complains of incisional pain at a level 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) and has decreased left-sided breath sounds. The pleural drainage system has 100 mL of bloody drainage and a large air leak. Which action is best for the nurse to take next?
- A. Milk the chest tube gently to remove any clots.
- B. Clamp the chest tube momentarily to check for the origin of the air leak.
- C. Assist the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer.
- D. Set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine.
Correct answer: S
Rationale: In this scenario, the best action is to set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine. The patient's pain level is high, which can hinder deep breathing and coughing. Addressing pain control is a priority to facilitate optimal respiratory function. Milking the chest tube to remove clots is unnecessary as the drainage amount is not alarming in the early postoperative period. Clamping the chest tube to locate the air leak is not recommended as it can lead to tension pneumothorax. Assisting the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer is important but should follow adequate pain management to ensure the patient can effectively participate in these activities.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access