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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Prep

1. Nursing care plans are _______________?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nursing care plans are comprehensive documents created by registered nurses to outline individualized care for patients. These plans serve as guidelines for all members of the nursing team, including nursing assistants, to ensure consistent and quality care. Choice A is incorrect as CNAs typically assist in implementing the care plan rather than creating it. Choice C is incorrect as nursing care plans are utilized by all members of the nursing team, not exclusive to only nurses. Choice D is incorrect as nursing assistants also utilize nursing care plans to provide patient care effectively.

2. The patient with migraine headaches has a seizure. After the seizure, which action can you delegate to the nursing assistant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a patient with migraine headaches has a seizure, it is important to assess their vital signs to monitor their condition. This task can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant as it falls within their scope of practice. Documenting the seizure and performing neurologic checks require a higher level of training and should be done by a nurse or healthcare provider. Restraint should never be used as a first-line intervention after a seizure unless there is an immediate threat to the patient's safety, and it should be done following proper protocols and with appropriate training.

3. You are working the 8 am to 4 pm shift. You begin to vomit at 3 pm and you do not think that you are able to continue working. You decide to immediately go home without notifying your RN supervisor. You have ________________.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patient abandonment is a serious violation that can lead to disciplinary action and immediate termination of employment. It is defined as leaving patients without proper consent from the supervisor. In this scenario, leaving work without notifying the RN supervisor and potentially leaving patients unattended is considered patient abandonment, as it compromises patient safety and care. Choices A and B are incorrect because having sick time or finishing work does not justify leaving without proper protocol. Choice D is incorrect as the scenario does not indicate abuse or neglect towards the patients.

4. The healthcare professional is preparing to use a stethoscope for auscultation. Which statement is true regarding the diaphragm of the stethoscope?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The diaphragm of the stethoscope is designed for listening to high-pitched sounds like breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds. It should be firmly held against the person's skin to ensure optimal sound transmission, leaving a ring after use. On the other hand, the bell of the stethoscope is ideal for detecting soft, low-pitched sounds such as extra heart sounds or murmurs. Therefore, the diaphragm is not used to block out low-pitched sounds but rather to enhance the detection of high-frequency sounds.

5. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

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