Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following bony landmarks is described as a large, blunt, irregularly shaped process found on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur?

• A. Tubercle
• B. Tuberosity
• C. Condyle
• D. Trochanter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trochanter. The Greater Trochanter is located on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur and is a large, blunt, irregularly shaped bony process. It serves as an important attachment site for many muscles of the legs, providing leverage and movement. Choice A, Tubercle, is a small rounded projection, usually for the attachment of a ligament or tendon. Choice B, Tuberosity, is a large rounded projection, also typically for muscle attachment. Choice C, Condyle, refers to a rounded articular surface at the end of a bone, usually involved in joints.

2. Which of the following safety precautions should the nurse discuss when working with an immunocompromised client?

• A. Avoid canned foods and increase consumption of fresh fruits and vegetables
• B. Hand-wash utensils after use and allow them to air dry
• C. Only drink tap water that has been filtered or boiled before consumption
• D. Never eat meals prepared in restaurants

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to only drink tap water that has been filtered or boiled before consumption. Immunocompromised clients are susceptible to infections, so it is essential to take precautions to prevent exposure to harmful pathogens. Drinking tap water that has been filtered or boiled helps eliminate potential pathogens that could be harmful to the client's health. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address the issue of avoiding potential pathogens that could compromise the health of an immunocompromised client. Thus, they are incorrect. Hand-washing utensils, avoiding canned foods, and increasing fruit and vegetable consumption are good general hygiene practices but may not specifically address the needs of an immunocompromised client.

3. To properly read a meniscus,

• A. hold the measuring device at eye level and read the bottom of the curve of the liquid level
• B. hold the measuring device at eye level and read the top of the curve of the liquid level where the liquid adheres to the walls of the container.
• C. hold the measuring device at table level and, looking down into the measuring device, read the bottom of the curve of the liquid level.
• D. hold the measuring device at table level and, looking down into the measuring device, read the top of the curve of the liquid level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To properly read a meniscus, it is essential to hold the measuring device at eye level to avoid parallax error. Reading the bottom of the curve of the liquid level is correct because the meniscus is the concave or convex curve at the liquid's surface. Choice B is incorrect because reading the top of the curve where the liquid adheres to the walls of the container can lead to inaccurate measurements. Choices C and D are incorrect as they suggest holding the device at table level, which can introduce parallax error and result in an incorrect reading.

4. What technique would the nurse use to accurately assess a rectal temperature in an adult?

• A. Use a lubricated blunt tip thermometer.
• B. Insert the thermometer 2 to 3 inches into the rectum.
• C. Leave the thermometer in place for up to 8 minutes if the patient is febrile.
• D. Wait 2 to 3 minutes if the patient has recently smoked a cigarette.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To accurately assess a rectal temperature in an adult, a nurse should use a lubricated rectal thermometer with a short, blunt tip. The thermometer is inserted only 2 to 3 cm (1 inch) into the rectum and left in place for 2 minutes. Choice B is incorrect as inserting the thermometer 2 to 3 inches would be too deep and inaccurate. Choice C is incorrect as leaving the thermometer in place for up to 8 minutes is unnecessary and can cause discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as smoking a cigarette does not impact rectal temperatures.

5. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

• A. 100 per minute
• B. 60 per minute
• C. As quickly as possible
• D. 200 per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

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