Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?

• A. Anesthesia reaction
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a postoperative diabetic patient who is unable to eat solid foods, the likely cause of symptoms such as confusion and shakiness is hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common manifestations of hypoglycemia. Insufficient glucose supply to the brain (neuroglycopenia) can lead to confusion, difficulty with concentration, irritability, hallucinations, focal impairments like hemiplegia, and, in severe cases, coma and death. Anesthesia reaction (Choice A) is less likely in this scenario as the patient is already on the second postoperative day. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is unlikely given the patient's symptoms and history of not eating. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Choice D) typically presents with hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, which are not consistent with the patient's current symptoms of confusion and shakiness.

2. A client is brought into the emergency department after finishing a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. The client is experiencing dyspnea, chest tightness, and agitation. Her blood pressure is 88/58, she has generalized hives over her body, and her lips and tongue are swollen. After the nurse calls for help, what is the next appropriate action?

• A. Start an IV and administer a 1-liter bolus of Lactated Ringer's solution
• B. Administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine IM
• C. Administer 15 mg diphenhydramine IM
• D. Monitor the client until help arrives

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction will likely present with rash or hives, swelling of the lips, face, or tongue, hypotension, or dyspnea. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of anaphylaxis with dyspnea, chest tightness, hives, hypotension, and swelling of the lips and tongue. The next appropriate action would be to administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine intramuscularly. Epinephrine helps relax the muscles of the airway, improve breathing, and increase oxygenation, which is crucial in managing anaphylaxis. Starting an IV and administering fluids can be important but not the immediate priority. Diphenhydramine may be used as an adjunct therapy but should not delay the administration of epinephrine in the acute phase of anaphylaxis. Monitoring the client without providing immediate treatment can lead to a worsening of the anaphylactic reaction, potentially resulting in a life-threatening situation.

3. A child is hospitalized because of persistent vomiting. The nurse should monitor the child closely for which problem?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Metabolic alkalosis
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario of persistent vomiting, the child is at risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrochloric acid. Vomiting leads to the loss of gastric acid, resulting in an imbalance that causes metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis is incorrect as it would occur in a child with diarrhea due to the loss of bicarbonate. While diarrhea can sometimes be associated with vomiting, in this case, the primary focus is on the effects of vomiting. Hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically associated with vomiting, making this choice less relevant to the situation described.

4. One hour after a thoracotomy, a patient complains of incisional pain at a level 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) and has decreased left-sided breath sounds. The pleural drainage system has 100 mL of bloody drainage and a large air leak. Which action is best for the nurse to take next?

• A. Milk the chest tube gently to remove any clots.
• B. Clamp the chest tube momentarily to check for the origin of the air leak.
• C. Assist the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer.
• D. Set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine.

Correct answer: S

Rationale: In this scenario, the best action is to set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine. The patient's pain level is high, which can hinder deep breathing and coughing. Addressing pain control is a priority to facilitate optimal respiratory function. Milking the chest tube to remove clots is unnecessary as the drainage amount is not alarming in the early postoperative period. Clamping the chest tube to locate the air leak is not recommended as it can lead to tension pneumothorax. Assisting the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer is important but should follow adequate pain management to ensure the patient can effectively participate in these activities.

5. The parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy ask if the infant will be able to control their bladder as they get older. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your child will need catheterization until bladder control is gained.
• B. Your child will be able to control their bladder like other children.
• C. You should potty train your child at the same time you normally would.
• D. Your child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, so urine will drain freely.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect where the infant is born with the bladder located on the outside of the body. Surgical repair typically occurs within the first 1 to 2 days of life. In the following 3 to 5 years post-surgery, urine will drain freely from the urethra due to the absence of a sphincter mechanism. This period allows the bladder to develop capacity as the child grows. Subsequent surgical interventions will be required to establish a functioning sphincter mechanism. Therefore, the correct response is that the child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, leading to urine draining freely. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the physiological process and management of bladder exstrophy.

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