Nursing Elites

1. A patient scheduled for cataract surgery asks the nurse why they developed cataracts and how to prevent it in the future. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Age is the biggest factor contributing to cataracts.
• B. Unprotected exposure to UV lights can cause cataracts.
• C. Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.
• D. Unfortunately, there is really nothing you can do to prevent cataracts, but they are amongst the most easily treated eye conditions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.' This response is the best choice as it covers the most common contributing factors for cataracts and includes preventable risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because while age is a significant factor in cataract development, it is not the only one. Choice B is incorrect as UV light exposure is a risk factor for cataracts but not the most comprehensive response. Choice D is incorrect as there are preventive measures individuals can take to reduce their risk of developing cataracts, such as protecting their eyes from UV light and managing other risk factors.

2. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?

• A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
• B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
• C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
• D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases, the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the groin area (Choice A) is not recommended as it will not help in the resolution of the hydrocele. Referral to a surgeon (Choice B) is not necessary at this stage since hydroceles often resolve on their own in infants. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position (Choice D) does not aid in the reabsorption of fluid and is not a recommended intervention for hydrocele management.

3. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who was hospitalized for pneumonia. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a good understanding of the instructions?

• A. I will call the doctor if I still feel tired after a week.
• B. I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home.
• C. I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home.
• D. I'll cancel my chest x-ray appointment if Im feeling better in a couple weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients should continue to cough and deep breathe after discharge. Fatigue is expected for several weeks. The Pneumovax and influenza vaccines can be given at the same time in different arms. Explain that a follow-up chest x-ray needs to be done in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate resolution of pneumonia.

4. A patient is diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the healthcare provider?

• A. The Mantoux test induration measured 7 mm.
• B. The chest x-ray revealed infiltrates in the lower lobes.
• C. The patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection.
• D. The patient has a cough producing blood-tinged mucus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical information to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient diagnosed with both HIV and active TB disease is that the patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection. This is crucial because drug interactions can occur between antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and medications used to treat TB. By informing the healthcare provider about the antiretroviral therapy, potential interactions can be assessed and managed effectively to optimize patient care. The other data provided, such as the Mantoux test result, chest x-ray findings, and presence of blood-tinged mucus, are important clinical information but are expected in a patient with coexisting HIV and TB and do not directly impact potential drug interactions between antiretrovirals and TB medications.

5. A 34-year-old patient with chronic hepatitis C infection has several medications prescribed. Which medication requires further discussion with the healthcare provider before administration?

• A. Ribavirin (Rebetol, Copegus) 600 mg PO bid
• B. Pegylated ?-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ weekly
• C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg PO every 4 hours PRN itching
• D. Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) 50 mg PO every 6 hours PRN nausea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pegylated ?-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ weekly. Pegylated ?-interferon is typically administered once weekly, not daily. Therefore, this medication requires further discussion with the healthcare provider before administration to ensure the correct dosing frequency. Ribavirin, choice A, is appropriate for chronic hepatitis C treatment. Choices C and D, Diphenhydramine and Dimenhydrinate, are commonly used for symptomatic relief in patients with hepatitis C and do not require further discussion with the healthcare provider in this context.

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