NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?
- A. The patient reports no chest pain.
- B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
- C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
- D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.
2. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing a migraine headache?
- A. Acute pain related to biologic and chemical factors
- B. Anxiety related to change in or threat to health status
- C. Hopelessness related to deteriorating physiological condition
- D. Risk for side effects related to medical therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing a migraine headache is 'Acute pain related to biologic and chemical factors.' Migraine headaches are characterized by severe throbbing pain, often accompanied by sensitivity to light and sound. Addressing the acute pain is crucial to improve the patient's comfort and quality of life. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority nursing diagnoses for a patient with a migraine headache. Anxiety, hopelessness, and risk for side effects may not be as urgent as managing the acute pain associated with a migraine.
3. Which finding indicates to the nurse that a patient's transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placed 3 months ago has been effective?
- A. Increased serum albumin level
- B. Decreased indirect bilirubin level
- C. Improved alertness and orientation
- D. Fewer episodes of bleeding varices
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fewer episodes of bleeding varices.' A transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is used to reduce pressure in the portal venous system, thus decreasing the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This outcome would indicate the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. The other choices are incorrect because: Increased serum albumin level and decreased indirect bilirubin level are not direct indicators of TIPS effectiveness. Improved alertness and orientation could be influenced by various factors and may not directly correlate with the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. Additionally, TIPS can actually increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy, which contradicts the choice of improved alertness and orientation.
4. A client is admitted for a head injury. His body is lying in an abnormal position and the physician states he is exhibiting decorticate posturing. Based on this assessment, the nurse can expect to find the client with:
- A. The legs extended and rotated internally; the elbow, wrists, and fingers flexed
- B. The legs pulled toward the chest; the head bent back at a 30-degree angle
- C. The back arched; the arms and legs extended and rigid
- D. The legs extended and rotated externally; the head turned to the right or the left
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Decorticate posturing is indicative of an injury to the corticospinal tract, resulting in abnormal posturing. It may occur spontaneously or in response to stimulation. This posture involves the legs being extended and rotated internally, while the elbows, wrists, and fingers are flexed inward. Choice A is correct because it accurately describes the expected positioning associated with decorticate posturing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B describes a different type of posturing known as opisthotonos. Choice C describes an exaggerated arching of the back, which is not characteristic of decorticate posturing. Choice D describes a different type of posturing with external rotation of the legs and head turning to the side, not consistent with decorticate posturing.
5. A patient is found unconscious in their room with rhythmic jerking of all four extremities and heavy foaming at the mouth. The patient was on seizure precautions with bedrails up and padded. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Turn the patient to his/her side
- C. Call the physician
- D. Suction the patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to turn the patient to his/her side. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. Administering Lorazepam (Ativan) without ensuring a clear airway could lead to further complications. Calling the physician is important, but immediate interventions to protect the airway take precedence. Suctioning the patient may be necessary but should not be the initial action; positioning for airway protection is the priority.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access