NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The nurse assesses a patient suspected of having meningitis. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?
- A. A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness
- B. A high WBC count and manic activity
- C. A low WBC count and manic activity
- D. A low WBC count and decreased level of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness.' Meningitis is often caused by an infectious organism, leading to an increase in Intracranial Pressure (ICP), which can result in decreased level of consciousness. While meningitis can trigger an inflammatory response, it typically presents with an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count rather than a low WBC count. Manic activity is not a common clinical manifestation of meningitis; instead, patients may exhibit altered mental status, confusion, or lethargy.
2. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?
- A. Fever and rash
- B. Circumoral cyanosis
- C. Elevated glucose levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
3. The parents of a newborn with a cleft lip are concerned and ask the nurse when the lip will be repaired. With which statement should the nurse respond?
- A. Cleft lip cannot be repaired.
- B. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed by 6 months of age.
- C. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed during the first months of life.
- D. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cleft-lip repair is typically performed during the first few months of life to address functional and cosmetic concerns at an early stage. Early repair can enhance bonding and facilitate feeding. While revisions may be necessary later on, addressing the cleft lip early is essential. Option A is incorrect as cleft lip repair is a common surgical procedure. Option B is incorrect as repair is typically done earlier than 6 months for better outcomes. Option D is incorrect as the usual timing for repair is within the first months of life, not between 6 months and 2 years.
4. A healthcare professional is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following microorganisms has not been linked to meningitis in humans?
- A. S. pneumoniae
- B. H. influenzae
- C. N. meningitidis
- D. Cl. difficile
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Cl. difficile. Clostridium difficile (C. diff) is not typically associated with meningitis in humans. This bacterium is known to cause severe diarrhea, usually as a result of antibiotic treatment. S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and N. meningitidis are all known to be causative agents of meningitis in humans. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis, especially in adults. H. influenzae, particularly type b (Hib), used to be a leading cause of meningitis in children before the introduction of the Hib vaccine. N. meningitidis is another significant pathogen responsible for causing meningitis, especially in young adults and adolescents.
5. The nurse has been assigned to care for a neonate just delivered who has gastroschisis. Which concern should the nurse address in the client's plan of care?
- A. Infection.
- B. Poor body image.
- C. Decreased urinary elimination.
- D. Cracking oral mucous membranes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a neonate with gastroschisis, the bowel herniates through a defect in the abdominal wall without a covering membrane, which puts the neonate at high risk of infection. Immediate surgical repair is necessary due to the vulnerability of the exposed bowel to infection. Therefore, the most critical concern for the nurse to address in the plan of care of a neonate with gastroschisis is preventing infection. Poor body image is not a priority in neonatal care as neonates do not have body image concerns. Decreased urinary elimination is not typically a direct consequence of gastroschisis as it primarily affects the gastrointestinal system, not the genitourinary system. Cracking oral mucous membranes are not relevant to gastroschisis as it involves the lower gastrointestinal system, not the oral cavity.
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