Nursing Elites

1. When printing out an EKG, a nurse notices that the QRS complexes are extremely small. What should be the next step?

• A. Alert the physician immediately as this is a sign of impending cardiac arrest.
• B. Check to see that all leads are attached and rerun the EKG.
• C. Increase the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection.
• D. Decrease the run speed to 50.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection will double the sensitivity, allowing for better observation of the small QRS complexes. This step is crucial in obtaining a clearer EKG reading. Choice A is incorrect because small QRS complexes do not necessarily indicate impending cardiac arrest; it's more likely a technical issue. Choice B is not the first step to take when small QRS complexes are observed; it's important to adjust the settings first. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing the run speed to 50 is not the appropriate action for this situation; adjusting the sensitivity control is more relevant to improve the visualization of the complexes.

2. The acronym FAST is used to help responders remember the steps to recognizing which of the following conditions?

• A. Onset of labor in a pregnant woman
• B. Stroke
• C. Heart attack
• D. Migraine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stroke. The acronym FAST is used to help recognize the signs of a stroke. The letters stand for Face, Arms, Speech, and Time. This mnemonic helps in identifying facial drooping, arm weakness, speech difficulties, and the importance of time in seeking emergency care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the FAST acronym specifically pertains to stroke recognition, not the onset of labor, heart attacks, or migraines.

3. The instructor is teaching a class on basic assessment skills. Which of the following statements is true regarding the stethoscope and its use?

• A. Slope of the earpieces should point forward toward the examiner's nose.
• B. It blocks out extraneous room noise but does not magnify sound.
• C. The tubing length should be 14 to 18 inches to prevent sound distortion.
• D. Both fit and quality of the stethoscope are important.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The stethoscope does not magnify sound but effectively blocks out extraneous room noises. The correct orientation of the earpieces is with the slope pointing forward toward the examiner's nose, not posteriorly. The tubing length of a stethoscope should ideally be between 14 to 18 inches (36 to 46 cm) to avoid sound distortion. Using tubing longer than this range can distort sound. Both the fit and quality of the stethoscope are crucial for accurate auscultation and assessment, highlighting their significance in clinical practice. Therefore, the correct answer is that the stethoscope blocks out extraneous room noise but does not magnify sound.

4. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

5. The nurse supervises unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are providing care for a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. The nurse should intervene if which action by UAP is observed?

• A. UAP splint the patient's chest during coughing.
• B. UAP assist the patient to ambulate to the bathroom.
• C. UAP help the patient to a bedside chair for meals.
• D. UAP lower the head of the patient's bed to 15 degrees.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to intervene in is when the UAP lowers the head of the patient's bed to 15 degrees. This position can decrease ventilation in a patient with pneumonia, potentially worsening their condition. Choices B and C involve assisting the patient with activities of daily living and promoting mobility, which are appropriate for the patient's care. Choice A, splinting the patient's chest during coughing, can help the patient manage coughing effectively, which is also appropriate for a patient with pneumonia.

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