Nursing Elites

1. When printing out an EKG, a nurse notices that the QRS complexes are extremely small. What should be the next step?

• A. Alert the physician immediately as this is a sign of impending cardiac arrest.
• B. Check to see that all leads are attached and rerun the EKG.
• C. Increase the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection.
• D. Decrease the run speed to 50.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection will double the sensitivity, allowing for better observation of the small QRS complexes. This step is crucial in obtaining a clearer EKG reading. Choice A is incorrect because small QRS complexes do not necessarily indicate impending cardiac arrest; it's more likely a technical issue. Choice B is not the first step to take when small QRS complexes are observed; it's important to adjust the settings first. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing the run speed to 50 is not the appropriate action for this situation; adjusting the sensitivity control is more relevant to improve the visualization of the complexes.

2. According to the American Heart Association standards, high-quality CPR for an adult includes all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Push hard
• B. Push fast
• C. Allow chest recoil between compressions
• D. Pause CPR as each drug is administered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High-quality CPR for adults should not be paused for drug administration. The correct CPR technique involves pushing hard and fast, at a rate of at least 100 compressions per minute and to a depth of at least 2 inches. It is also essential to allow chest recoil between compressions to enable proper blood circulation. Pausing CPR for drug administration would delay the delivery of continuous chest compressions, which are crucial for maintaining blood flow and oxygenation during cardiac arrest.

3. Which of the following diseases would require the nurse to wear an N95 respirator as part of personal protective equipment?

• A. Human immunodeficiency virus
• B. Clostridium difficile enterocolitis
• C. Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
• D. Measles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infections that require airborne precautions necessitate the use of an N95 respirator, a type of mask that filters particles that are 5 micrograms or smaller. Illnesses that require airborne precautions include Measles, Varicella, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), and tuberculosis. Measles is a highly contagious airborne disease caused by a virus. It can spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Wearing an N95 respirator helps prevent the nurse from inhaling these infectious particles. Human immunodeficiency virus, Clostridium difficile enterocolitis, and Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus do not require the use of an N95 respirator as they are not transmitted through the air but have other modes of transmission.

4. On admission to the psychiatric unit, the client is trembling and appears fearful. The nurse's initial response should be to:

• A. Give the client orientation materials and review the unit rules and regulations.
• B. Introduce him/her and accompany the client to the client's room.
• C. Take the client to the day room and introduce him/her to the other clients.
• D. Ask the nursing assistant to get the client's vital signs and complete the admission search.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anxiety is triggered by change that threatens the individual's sense of security. In response to anxiety in clients, the nurse should remain calm, minimize stimuli, and move the client to a calmer, more secure/safe setting. The correct initial response is to introduce the client and accompany them to their room. This approach helps the client feel oriented, safe, and supported. Giving orientation materials or reviewing rules and regulations may overwhelm the client further. Taking the client to the day room and introducing them to other clients could increase anxiety by exposing them to unfamiliar faces. Asking the nursing assistant to get vital signs and complete admission tasks can wait until the client feels more settled and secure in their environment.

5. Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates a possible nutritional deficiency?

• A. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen
• B. Presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue
• C. Straight arms and legs
• D. Pale conjunctiva

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with poor nutritional intake may have pale mucous membranes surrounding the eye, or the conjunctiva. This area should normally be pink, indicating good circulation and a lack of irritation or dryness. Improper nutrition can manifest as numerous signs in the body, including bowed legs, pale mucous membranes, a smooth or beefy tongue, and poor muscle tone. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen is not a sign of nutritional deficiency but rather of excess fat deposition. The presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue is normal and not indicative of a nutritional deficiency. Straight arms and legs are also typical anatomical features and not specifically related to nutritional deficiencies.

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