Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle, resulting in head trauma. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern?

• A. Bulging anterior fontanel
• B. Repeated vomiting
• C. Signs of sleepiness at 10 PM
• D. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased intracranial pressure after head trauma can lead to serious complications. Repeated vomiting is a concerning sign as it can indicate stimulation of the vomiting center within the brainstem due to increased pressure. This can be an early indicator of raised intracranial pressure and the need for urgent medical intervention. Bulging anterior fontanel may not be immediately apparent in a 4-year-old child and is more common in infants. Signs of sleepiness at a particular time of day are not specific to increased intracranial pressure. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches may indicate vision problems but is not directly related to intracranial pressure.

2. A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and pulse oximetry indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer bicarbonate.
• B. Complete a head-to-toe assessment.
• C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
• D. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with metabolic alkalosis and an O2 saturation of 94%, placing the patient on high-flow oxygen is the correct action. Even though the O2 saturation seems adequate, metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues. Therefore, providing high-flow oxygen can help compensate for this. Administering bicarbonate would exacerbate the alkalosis. While completing a head-to-toe assessment and obtaining repeat ABGs are important interventions, the priority in this scenario is to improve oxygen delivery by placing the patient on high-flow oxygen.

3. A patient with a cast on the right leg is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following assessment findings would be most concerning for the nurse?

• A. The capillary refill time is 2 seconds
• B. The patient complains of itching and discomfort
• C. The cast has a foul-smelling odor
• D. The patient is on antibiotics

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A foul-smelling odor emanating from the cast is a concerning finding as it indicates the possibility of infection or the presence of a pressure ulcer. These conditions can lead to serious complications if not promptly addressed. It is crucial for the nurse to investigate further and take appropriate actions to prevent potential harm to the patient. The other options do not directly indicate a risk of infection or complications associated with the cast. Itching and discomfort are common complaints due to wearing a cast, and the patient being on antibiotics may be part of their treatment plan for an unrelated condition. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds is within the normal range and would not be a cause for immediate concern in this scenario.

4. A diabetic patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.28; PaCO2 34 mm Hg; PaO2 85 mm Hg; HCO3 18 mEq/L. The nurse would expect which finding?

• A. Intercostal retractions
• B. Kussmaul respirations
• C. Low oxygen saturation (SpO2)
• D. Decreased venous O2 pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (deep and rapid) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis. The low pH and low bicarbonate levels indicate metabolic acidosis. Intercostal retractions, low oxygen saturation, and decreased venous O2 pressure are not associated with acidosis. Intercostal retractions typically occur in respiratory distress, while low oxygen saturation and decreased venous O2 pressure are more related to respiratory or circulatory issues, not metabolic acidosis.

5. Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement?

• A. Dry dressing
• B. Transparent dressing
• C. Composite dressing
• D. Wet to dry dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.

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