NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle, resulting in head trauma. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern?
- A. Bulging anterior fontanel
- B. Repeated vomiting
- C. Signs of sleepiness at 10 PM
- D. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased intracranial pressure after head trauma can lead to serious complications. Repeated vomiting is a concerning sign as it can indicate stimulation of the vomiting center within the brainstem due to increased pressure. This can be an early indicator of raised intracranial pressure and the need for urgent medical intervention. Bulging anterior fontanel may not be immediately apparent in a 4-year-old child and is more common in infants. Signs of sleepiness at a particular time of day are not specific to increased intracranial pressure. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches may indicate vision problems but is not directly related to intracranial pressure.
2. A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is classified as:
- A. Normotensive
- B. Prehypertension
- C. Stage I hypertension
- D. Stage II hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg falls within the range of 140-159 mm Hg, which is classified as Stage I hypertension. Normotensive individuals have a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg, making choice A incorrect. Prehypertension is characterized by a systolic blood pressure ranging from 120-139 mm Hg, excluding choice B. Stage II hypertension is diagnosed when the systolic blood pressure is greater than 160 mm Hg, making choice D incorrect. Therefore, the correct classification for a systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is Stage I hypertension.
3. A client presents with symptoms of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, fever, chills, and extreme fatigue. Based on these symptoms, which of the following illnesses could the nurse consider for this client?
- A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
- B. Hepatitis B
- C. Infectious mononucleosis
- D. Norovirus infection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Infectious mononucleosis is a viral disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The symptoms of sore throat, fever, chills, swollen lymph nodes, and extreme fatigue are characteristic of infectious mononucleosis. The diagnosis is confirmed through the client's history and blood tests for the Epstein-Barr virus. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) presents with localized skin infections, not the systemic symptoms described. Hepatitis B typically presents with jaundice, abdominal pain, and liver inflammation, not the symptoms described. Norovirus infection commonly causes gastrointestinal symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea, not the symptoms presented by the client.
4. The nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered rhonchi after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assist the patient to sit upright in a chair.
- B. Splint the patient's chest during coughing.
- C. Medicate the patient with prescribed morphine.
- D. Observe the patient use the incentive spirometer.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to medicate the patient with prescribed morphine. A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain, which can worsen with deep breathing and coughing. The priority is to address the incisional pain to facilitate effective coughing and deep breathing, which are essential for clearing the airways and preventing complications. Assisting the patient to sit upright, splinting the patient's chest during coughing, and observing the patient using the incentive spirometer are all appropriate interventions to improve airway clearance, but they should be implemented after addressing the incisional pain with medication.
5. A patient asks the nurse whether he is a good candidate to use a CPAP machine. The nurse reviews the client's history. Which condition would contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine?
- A. The patient is in the late stage of dementia.
- B. The patient has a history of bronchitis.
- C. The patient has had suicidal gestures/attempts in the past.
- D. The patient is on beta-blockers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient is in the late stage of dementia. In late-stage dementia, individuals may have an inability to follow commands and understand instructions independently, which are essential for proper installation and use of a CPAP machine. This makes using a CPAP machine challenging and potentially ineffective for patients in this condition. Choice B, having a history of bronchitis, does not contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. In fact, CPAP therapy can be beneficial for patients with respiratory conditions like bronchitis. Choice C, a history of suicidal gestures/attempts, while concerning for the patient's mental health, does not directly contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. Choice D, being on beta-blockers, is not a contraindication for CPAP machine use. Beta-blockers are commonly used medications for various conditions and do not interfere with the use of a CPAP machine.
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