a nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4 year old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle resulting a nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4 year old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle resulting
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NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle, resulting in head trauma. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern?

Correct answer: Repeated vomiting

Rationale: Increased intracranial pressure after head trauma can lead to serious complications. Repeated vomiting is a concerning sign as it can indicate stimulation of the vomiting center within the brainstem due to increased pressure. This can be an early indicator of raised intracranial pressure and the need for urgent medical intervention. Bulging anterior fontanel may not be immediately apparent in a 4-year-old child and is more common in infants. Signs of sleepiness at a particular time of day are not specific to increased intracranial pressure. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches may indicate vision problems but is not directly related to intracranial pressure.

2. A nurse is caring for a dying client whose family wants to be with him in the operating suite. The surgeon, however, does not allow families to be present during surgery. The nurse recognizes this as an ethical dilemma. What is the initial step of the nurse when managing this situation?

Correct answer: Contact the physician to amend the order for the client

Rationale: In this type of situation, the first action of the nurse should be to address the immediate needs of the client by requesting the physician to make a change based on the circumstances. The primary concern is to ensure the client's well-being and honor the family's wishes, even if it means deviating from standard protocols. While documentation (Choice B) and consulting with higher authorities like the medical ethics committee (Choice C) may be necessary at a later stage, the initial step is to take action to meet the client's needs promptly. Speaking with the chief nursing officer to change the policy (Choice D) is not the most immediate or practical step in this situation, as the focus should be on the client's current care needs.

3. A 27-year-old writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially the nurse should plan this for a manic client:

Correct answer: Set realistic limits to the client’s behavior

Rationale: For a manic client who is hyperactive and may engage in injurious activities, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is crucial to ensure safety. A quiet environment with firm and consistent limits helps in managing the client's behavior effectively. While repeating verbal instructions can be helpful due to the client's distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety concerns. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but it should be done through non-destructive methods. Assigning staff to be with the client at all times is not realistic or feasible in the clinical setting and does not address the core issue of managing the client's behavior and ensuring safety.

4. After surgery for an imperforate anus, an infant returns with a red and edematous colostomy stoma. What action should the nurse take based on this finding?

Correct answer: Document the findings.

Rationale: A red and edematous colostomy stoma is a common finding immediately after surgery, and these changes are expected to decrease over time. As the stoma heals, it usually becomes pink without signs of abnormal drainage, swelling, or skin breakdown. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse is to document these normal findings. Elevating the buttocks, applying ice, or calling the primary health care provider are unnecessary interventions at this stage.

5. The patient's symptoms, lack of antibodies for hepatitis, and the abrupt onset of symptoms suggest toxic hepatitis, which can be caused by commonly used over-the-counter drugs such as acetaminophen (Tylenol). Travel to a foreign country and a history of IV drug use are risk factors for viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use does not cause the symptoms listed.

Correct answer: Albumin level

Rationale: The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. In this case, monitoring the albumin level is crucial to assess the patient's fluid balance and potential for edema. While hemoglobin, temperature, and activity level are important parameters to monitor in a patient's assessment, they are not directly associated with the patient's current symptoms of toxic hepatitis and edema development. Therefore, the correct choice is the albumin level.

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