NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle, resulting in head trauma. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern?
- A. Bulging anterior fontanel
- B. Repeated vomiting
- C. Signs of sleepiness at 10 PM
- D. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased intracranial pressure after head trauma can lead to serious complications. Repeated vomiting is a concerning sign as it can indicate stimulation of the vomiting center within the brainstem due to increased pressure. This can be an early indicator of raised intracranial pressure and the need for urgent medical intervention. Bulging anterior fontanel may not be immediately apparent in a 4-year-old child and is more common in infants. Signs of sleepiness at a particular time of day are not specific to increased intracranial pressure. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches may indicate vision problems but is not directly related to intracranial pressure.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. The oncologist uses the TNM staging system to classify this case as T2, N2, M0. The nurse understands that TNM stands for:
- A. Tumor, Necrosis, Metastasis
- B. Tumor, Node Involvement, Mastectomy
- C. Tumor, Node Involvement, Metastasis
- D. Therapy, Necrosis, Metastasis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The TNM staging system is a classification system for determining the size and extent of cancerous tissue. The TNM system helps providers to identify the most accurate forms of treatment. The T stands for tumor, the N stands for node involvement, and the M stands for metastasis. Choice A, 'Tumor, Necrosis, Metastasis,' is incorrect because it does not include the node involvement component. Choice B, 'Tumor, Node Involvement, Mastectomy,' is incorrect as it erroneously includes the treatment approach 'Mastectomy' instead of 'Metastasis.' Choice D, 'Therapy, Necrosis, Metastasis,' is incorrect because it includes 'Therapy' instead of the correct component 'Node Involvement.'
3. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?
- A. Altered tissue perfusion
- B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
- C. High risk for hemorrhage
- D. Risk for infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When the membranes are ruptured for more than 24 hours prior to birth, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, foul-smelling vaginal discharge, and uterine tenderness, is crucial. Option A, 'Altered tissue perfusion,' is not the priority in this scenario as infection risk takes precedence due to the prolonged rupture of membranes. Option B, 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' is less of a priority compared to the immediate risk of infection. Option C, 'High risk for hemorrhage,' is not the priority concern at this time based on the information provided.
4. The patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse?
- A. The oxygen saturation is 94%.
- B. The blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg.
- C. The patient's central IV line is disconnected.
- D. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most immediate action required by the nurse is to address the disconnected central IV line delivering epoprostenol (Flolan). Epoprostenol has a short half-life of 6 minutes, necessitating immediate reconnection to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. While oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and INR are important parameters requiring monitoring and intervention, the priority lies in ensuring the continuous delivery of the critical medication to stabilize the patient's condition.
5. A patient asks a nurse administering blood how long red blood cells live in the body. What is the correct response?
- A. The life span of RBC is 45 days
- B. The life span of RBC is 60 days
- C. The life span of RBC is 90 days
- D. The life span of RBC is 120 days
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that red blood cells have a lifespan of 120 days in the body. This allows for efficient oxygen transport throughout the circulatory system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lifespan of red blood cells is actually 120 days. Understanding the lifespan of red blood cells is crucial in assessing various conditions related to blood cell production and turnover.
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