NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which of these findings indicate that a pump to deliver a basal rate of 10 ml per hour plus PRN for pain breakthrough for a morphine drip is not working?
- A. The client complains of discomfort at the IV insertion site
- B. The client states 'I just can't get relief from my pain.'
- C. The level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon
- D. The level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 50 ml at noon
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon. With a basal rate of 10 mL per hour, a total of 40 mL should have been infused by noon, leaving only 60 mL in the container. Any amount greater than 60 mL at noon indicates that the pump is not functioning properly. Therefore, the finding of 80 mL at noon suggests the pump is not delivering the expected medication volume. Choices A and B are related to the client's symptoms and may indicate the need for pain management assessment but do not specifically indicate pump malfunction. Choice D, where the level drops to 50 mL at noon, would actually indicate that the pump is working effectively, as the expected volume has been delivered.
2. Which factors will the nurse consider when calculating the CURB-65 score for a patient with pneumonia? (Select one that does not apply)
- A. Age
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Oxygen saturation.' When calculating the CURB-65 score for a patient with pneumonia, the factors considered include mental status (confusion), BUN (elevated), blood pressure (decreased), respiratory rate (increased), and age (65 and older). Oxygen saturation is not used in the CURB-65 scoring system. While blood pressure, respiratory rate, and age are factors that are used in the calculation of the CURB-65 score, oxygen saturation is not part of the scoring criteria. Therefore, oxygen saturation is the factor that does not apply when calculating the CURB-65 score.
3. For a 6-year-old child hospitalized with moderate edema and mild hypertension associated with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), which one of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate?
- A. Institute seizure precautions
- B. Weigh the child twice per shift
- C. Encourage the child to eat protein-rich foods
- D. Relieve boredom through physical activity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Institute seizure precautions. The severity of the acute phase of AGN is variable and unpredictable; therefore, a child with edema, hypertension, and gross hematuria may be subject to complications, and anticipatory preparation such as seizure precautions is needed. Weighing the child twice per shift may be necessary for monitoring fluid balance but is not specifically related to the complications of AGN. Encouraging the child to eat protein-rich foods is important for overall nutrition but does not directly address the potential complications of AGN. Relieving boredom through physical activity is beneficial for overall well-being but is not the priority in this situation where seizure precautions are essential.
4. When asked to describe in layman's terms an overview of the condition called osteomyelitis, what would be the nurse's best response?
- A. Osteomyelitis is a gradual breakdown and weakening of your bones. It's most often age-related.
- B. Osteomyelitis is caused by not having enough Vitamin D, which in turn causes your bones to be softer and demineralized.
- C. Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone. It can be caused by bacteria reaching your bone from outside or inside your body.
- D. This is a question that should be directed to your healthcare provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone that can be caused by bacteria reaching the bone either from outside the body (such as through an open fracture) or inside the body (such as through the bloodstream). This response provides a concise and accurate explanation of osteomyelitis, making it the best choice. Choices A and B provide inaccurate information about the condition, attributing it to age-related bone breakdown and Vitamin D deficiency, which are not correct causes of osteomyelitis. Choice D deflects the question instead of providing the patient with a clear explanation, making it an inappropriate response.
5. The nurse is caring for a post-surgical client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis. Which intervention is an effective preventive measure?
- A. Use elastic stockings continuously
- B. Encourage range of motion and ambulation
- C. Massage the legs twice daily
- D. Place pillows under the knees
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging range of motion and ambulation is an effective preventive measure for deep vein thrombosis in post-surgical clients. Mobility helps improve blood circulation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Elastic stockings help prevent blood pooling and clotting in the legs by providing external pressure to support venous return. Massaging the legs twice daily may help with circulation but is not as effective as promoting movement and ambulation. Placing pillows under the knees is a comfort measure and does not directly address the prevention of deep vein thrombosis.
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