Nursing Elites

1. The clinic nurse is assessing jaundice in a child with hepatitis. Which anatomical area would provide the best data regarding the presence of jaundice?

• A. The nail beds.
• B. The skin in the sacral area.
• C. The skin in the abdominal area.
• D. The membranes in the ear canal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Jaundice, if present, can be best assessed in areas such as the sclera, nail beds, and mucous membranes due to the yellowing of these tissues. The nail beds specifically provide a good indication of jaundice. The skin in the sacral area (Option B) is not typically the best area for assessing jaundice as it is less visible and not as reliable as the nail beds. The skin in the abdominal area (Option C) may show generalized jaundice, but the nail beds are more specific for detecting early signs. Lastly, assessing the membranes in the ear canal (Option D) is not a standard method for evaluating jaundice; the sclera and nail beds are more commonly used for this purpose.

2. The nurse has provided dietary instructions to the mother of a child with celiac disease. The nurse determines that further instruction is needed if the mother states that she will include which food item in the child's nutritional plan?

• A. Corn
• B. Chicken
• C. Oatmeal
• D. Vitamin supplements

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In celiac disease, individuals need to avoid gluten-containing foods like wheat, rye, barley, and oats. Oatmeal contains gluten unless it is specifically labeled as gluten-free. Corn and rice are safe alternatives for individuals with celiac disease as they do not contain gluten. Chicken is a naturally gluten-free protein source. While vitamin supplements may be necessary to address deficiencies due to malabsorption, oatmeal poses a risk of gluten exposure, making it an incorrect choice for a child with celiac disease.

3. Using the illustrated technique, the healthcare provider is assessing for which finding in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Hyperresonance
• B. Tripod positioning
• C. Accessory muscle use
• D. Reduced chest expansion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The technique for palpation for chest expansion is shown in the illustrated technique. Reduced chest expansion would be noted on palpation of a patient's chest with COPD. Hyperresonance would be assessed through percussion, not palpation. Accessory muscle use and tripod positioning would be assessed by inspection, not palpation.

4. A patient presents with vesicles covering the upper torso. Which of the following situations could cause this condition?

• A. Knife fight
• B. Auto accident
• C. Sunburn
• D. Fungal infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vesicles are fluid-filled blisters. In the context of the upper torso, the presentation of vesicles suggests a second-degree sunburn. Sunburn can cause blistering, leading to the formation of vesicles. Choice A, 'Knife fight,' does not align with the presentation of vesicles on the upper torso due to trauma. Choice B, 'Auto accident,' is more likely to cause abrasions or bruises rather than vesicles. Choice D, 'Fungal infection,' typically presents with other symptoms such as redness, itching, or scaling, but not vesicles on the upper torso.

5. A nurse frequently treats patients in the 72-hour period after a stroke has occurred. The nurse would be most concerned about which of these assessment findings?

• A. INR is 3 seconds long
• B. Heart rate is 110 beats per minute
• C. Intracranial Pressure is 22 mmHg
• D. Blood pressure is 140/80

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse would be most concerned about the assessment finding of an Intracranial Pressure (ICP) reading of 22 mmHg in a patient 72 hours post-stroke. Elevated ICP can indicate increased risk of edema and further brain damage. A target ICP should ideally be maintained at less than or equal to 15-20 mmHg. While the other options may also be important to monitor, an elevated ICP poses a more immediate threat to the patient's neurological status and requires prompt attention.

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