NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. A family member of a client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia asks about the prognosis. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that schizophrenia:
- A. affects both genders equally.
- B. is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.
- C. is usually diagnosed in early adulthood.
- D. does not have a clear protective hormone effect delaying diagnosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.' While choices A, C, and D contain some truths about schizophrenia, they do not directly address the prognosis aspect of the question. Schizophrenia can affect both men and women equally, is typically diagnosed in early adulthood, and does not have a known protective hormone effect that delays diagnosis. Choice B accurately reflects the chronic and fluctuating nature of the disease, which is essential for understanding its long-term course.
2. As a type of quality indicator, an example of a structure standard is:
- A. a written philosophy.
- B. a procedure for a straight catheterization.
- C. a protocol for treatment of a client with chest pain.
- D. the diagnostic work-up for a client with abdominal pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'a written philosophy.' Structure standards define the conditions needed to operate a system and do not directly involve client care. Examples include philosophy, objectives, goals, hours of operation, and management responsibility. Choices B, C, and D involve specific procedures and protocols related to client care, which are not structure standards.
3. The child with seizure disorder is being treated with Dilantin (phenytoin). Which of the following statements by the patient's mother indicates to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a side effect of Dilantin therapy?
- A. "She is very irritable lately."?
- B. "She sleeps quite a bit of the time."?
- C. "Her gums look too big for her teeth."?
- D. "She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is '"Her gums look too big for her teeth."?' Hyperplasia of the gums is a known side effect associated with Dilantin therapy. Option A, '"She is very irritable lately,"?' is not a typical side effect of Dilantin. Option B, '"She sleeps quite a bit of the time,"?' is a common side effect of Dilantin but not specific to gum hyperplasia. Option D, '"She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months,"?' is not typically associated with Dilantin therapy and is unrelated to the question.
4. A mother has just given birth to a baby who died soon after. The mother has been crying and states, "I can't believe this has happened to me. I did everything right during this pregnancy."? How should the nurse respond to this mother?
- A. Tell her she did nothing wrong; it was God's will.
- B. Tell her she can have another baby.
- C. Tell her that her behavior is not going to solve anything.
- D. Tell her nothing and let her mourn this loss in the manner she chooses.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Perinatal loss is a significant tragedy for parents, and it is crucial to provide sensitive and compassionate care. When a mother expresses her disbelief and feelings of doing everything right during the pregnancy, it is important for the nurse to acknowledge her pain and allow her to grieve in her way. Telling her that she did nothing wrong and it was God's will (Choice A) may not be comforting and can come across as dismissive of her feelings. Suggesting she can have another baby (Choice B) is insensitive and overlooks the grief she is experiencing for the current loss. Telling her that her behavior is not going to solve anything (Choice C) is invalidating her emotions and not supportive in this situation. Therefore, the best approach is to support her in her mourning process by respecting her feelings and allowing her to express her grief as she sees fit.
5. Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:
- A. A cephalohematoma
- B. Molding
- C. Subdural hematoma
- D. Caput succedaneum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.
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