Nursing Elites

1. What would be an appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write based on the client's ability to state only two signs of impaired circulation out of three as expected?

• A. Client understands the signs of impaired circulation
• B. Goal met: Client cited numbness and tingling as a sign of impaired circulation
• C. Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation
• D. Goal not met: Client unable to describe signs of impaired circulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write would be 'Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation.' In this scenario, the client has only identified two out of the three signs of impaired circulation specified in the desired outcome. Therefore, the goal has not been fully achieved. It is essential in nursing practice to assess and document client progress accurately. While the client has shown some understanding by correctly identifying numbness and tingling as signs of impaired circulation, the inability to state the third sign indicates an incomplete achievement of the goal. This evaluation helps guide further interventions or educational strategies to help the client meet the desired outcome in the care plan.

2. What is the best outcome for a patient with the nursing diagnosis: Impaired social interaction related to sociocultural dissonance, as evidenced by stating, "Although I'd like to, I don't join in because I don't speak the language very well?"? The patient will:

• A. demonstrate improved social skills
• B. express a desire to interact with others
• C. become more independent in decision-making
• D. select and participate in one group activity per day

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct outcome for the patient with impaired social interaction related to sociocultural dissonance is to select and participate in one group activity per day. This outcome focuses on increasing social involvement, which aligns with addressing the nursing diagnosis. The patient has already expressed a desire to interact with others, so the goal is to facilitate actual participation in social activities. Becoming more independent in decision-making and demonstrating improved social skills are not directly related to the specific nursing diagnosis provided. Additionally, the outcomes must be measurable, making choices A and C less appropriate as they lack specificity and measurability.

3. What is the most useful patient position for proctologic exams?

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Semi-Fowler's
• C. Full Fowler's
• D. Jack Knife

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Jack Knife position is the most useful for proctologic exams as it allows the patient to lie face down while keeping the buttocks elevated, providing optimal access for the examination. The Trendelenburg position, characterized by the body being laid flat with the feet higher than the head, is not suitable for proctologic exams. Semi-Fowler's and Full Fowler's positions are typically utilized for respiratory or cardiovascular conditions and are not ideal for proctologic examinations due to their lack of optimal access to the perianal area.

4. The healthcare professional has collected the following information on a patient: palpated blood pressure"?180 mm Hg; auscultated blood pressure"?170/100 mm Hg; apical pulse"?60 beats per minute; radial pulse"?70 beats per minute. What is the patient's pulse pressure?

• A. 10
• B. 70
• C. 80
• D. 100

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pulse pressure is the numerical difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings. In this case, the systolic blood pressure is 170 mm Hg, and the diastolic blood pressure is 100 mm Hg. Therefore, the pulse pressure is calculated as 170 - 100 = 70 mm Hg. Pulse pressure reflects the stroke volume, the amount of blood ejected from the heart with each beat. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings provided.

5. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?

• A. Once a shift
• B. Once an hour
• C. Every 2 hours
• D. Every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.

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