Nursing Elites

1. What would be an appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write based on the client's ability to state only two signs of impaired circulation out of three as expected?

• A. Client understands the signs of impaired circulation
• B. Goal met: Client cited numbness and tingling as a sign of impaired circulation
• C. Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation
• D. Goal not met: Client unable to describe signs of impaired circulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write would be 'Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation.' In this scenario, the client has only identified two out of the three signs of impaired circulation specified in the desired outcome. Therefore, the goal has not been fully achieved. It is essential in nursing practice to assess and document client progress accurately. While the client has shown some understanding by correctly identifying numbness and tingling as signs of impaired circulation, the inability to state the third sign indicates an incomplete achievement of the goal. This evaluation helps guide further interventions or educational strategies to help the client meet the desired outcome in the care plan.

2. What does the medical term 'diaphoresis' mean?

• A. Profuse vomiting
• B. Profuse sweating
• C. Gasping for air
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Profuse sweating. Diaphoresis is a medical term that refers to excessive sweating. It is commonly seen in emergency situations such as heart attacks or diabetic episodes. Choice A, 'Profuse vomiting,' is incorrect as diaphoresis is not related to vomiting. Choice C, 'Gasping for air,' is also incorrect as it refers to difficulty breathing, not sweating. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as diaphoresis specifically relates to sweating.

3. When printing out an EKG, a nurse notices that the QRS complexes are extremely small. What should be the next step?

• A. Alert the physician immediately as this is a sign of impending cardiac arrest.
• B. Check to see that all leads are attached and rerun the EKG.
• C. Increase the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection.
• D. Decrease the run speed to 50.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection will double the sensitivity, allowing for better observation of the small QRS complexes. This step is crucial in obtaining a clearer EKG reading. Choice A is incorrect because small QRS complexes do not necessarily indicate impending cardiac arrest; it's more likely a technical issue. Choice B is not the first step to take when small QRS complexes are observed; it's important to adjust the settings first. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing the run speed to 50 is not the appropriate action for this situation; adjusting the sensitivity control is more relevant to improve the visualization of the complexes.

4. Patients have a right to ______________.

• A. only enough information so they can comply with care
• B. ALL of their health-related information
• C. small amounts of information so they do not get nervous
• D. moderate amounts of information unless they are old

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients have a legal right to access all of their health-related information. This includes details about their health condition, treatment options, test results, and any other relevant data. Providing patients with all their health-related information empowers them to make informed decisions about their care, promotes transparency in the healthcare process, and respects their autonomy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they restrict the information patients should receive based on assumptions or limitations, which goes against the principle of patient autonomy and their right to access their complete health-related information.

5. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

Similar Questions