Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of an environmental hazard that may put the healthcare professional at risk of injury?

• A. Loud noise from the hospital maintenance system
• B. Airborne powder containing latex
• C. Chemicals containing ethylene oxide
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Healthcare professionals, including nurses, are exposed to various environmental hazards that may negatively impact their physical or mental health. Hazards come in several forms, such as loud noise from hospital systems, which can damage hearing; airborne latex powder, leading to allergic reactions; and chemicals like ethylene oxide, a sterilizing agent that can cause cancer. Therefore, all the options listed pose risks to healthcare professionals, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choice A, loud noise, is a hazard that can affect hearing health. Choice B, airborne latex powder, can trigger allergic responses. Choice C, chemicals containing ethylene oxide, are hazardous and can lead to serious health issues. Each option represents a distinct environmental risk that healthcare professionals should be aware of and take precautions against.

2. A patient's urine specimen tested positive for bilirubin. Which of the following is most true?

• A. The patient should be evaluated for kidney disease
• B. The specimen was probably left at room temperature for more than two hours
• C. The specimen is positive for bacteria
• D. The specimen should be stored in an area protected from light

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bilirubin is easily broken down by light, so all samples testing positive for bilirubin should be protected from light exposure. Storing the specimen in an area protected from light helps maintain the integrity of the bilirubin levels for accurate testing. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of bilirubin in urine does not necessarily indicate kidney disease. Choice B is incorrect as the exposure to light, not room temperature, affects bilirubin levels. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of bilirubin does not indicate the presence of bacteria in the specimen.

3. Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?

• A. Retractions
• B. Elongated expiratory phase
• C. Stridor
• D. Expiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

4. Which of the following is an example of a positive effect of exercise on a client?

• A. Decreased basal metabolic rate
• B. Decreased venous return
• C. Decreased work of breathing
• D. Decreased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased work of breathing.' Exercise has numerous positive effects on clients, such as increasing metabolic rate, improving gastric motility, and enhancing venous return. When a client exercises regularly, their work of breathing decreases, meaning that everyday activities require less exertion. This is beneficial as it indicates improved cardiovascular and respiratory efficiency. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decreased basal metabolic rate, decreased venous return, and decreased gastric motility are not typically considered positive effects of exercise. Instead, an increased basal metabolic rate, improved venous return, and optimal gastric motility are desired outcomes associated with physical activity.

5. To accurately assess a patient's respiration rate, which of the following methods would be BEST?

• A. Tell the patient, 'Please remain silent while I count your number of breaths.'
• B. Count respirations at the same time you are counting the pulse rate
• C. Count the pulse rate for one minute, then, while keeping your index fingers on the patient's radial artery, count the respirations for an additional minute.
• D. Count the patient's respiration rate, then take the patient's temperature, and then take the pulse rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most accurate method to assess a patient's respiration rate is to count the breaths simultaneously while counting the pulse rate. This approach ensures that the patient is unaware of the specific focus on their breathing, preventing any conscious alteration in breathing patterns. Choice A is incorrect because informing the patient may lead to altered breathing as the patient may consciously change their breathing pattern. Choice C involves counting the pulse rate first, which is not necessary for assessing respiration rate. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary steps such as taking the patient's temperature before counting respiration rate, which adds no value to accurately assessing the respiration rate.

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