Nursing Elites

1. Cheryl M. has a serious swallowing disorder. She has asked you for a glass of water. The doctor has ordered honey thickness liquids for her. Water is not a honey thickness liquid. It is much thinner. What should you do?

• A. Tell the resident that she cannot have water.
• B. Give her applesauce instead of the water.
• C. Tell Cheryl that she is NPO until midnight.
• D. Thicken the water and give it to her.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: You can give Cheryl the water that she has requested; however, since water is not a honey-thick liquid as ordered by the doctor, you must thicken it with a commercial thickener before giving it to her. This will ensure that the water is at the appropriate consistency for her swallowing disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A) Telling the resident she cannot have water is not the best course of action without attempting to modify it first. B) Giving her applesauce instead of water does not address the specific request for water. C) Placing Cheryl on NPO status until midnight is unnecessary and does not address her immediate request for water.

2. Which of the following is classified as a prerenal condition that affects urinary elimination?

• A. Nephrotoxic medications
• B. Pericardial tamponade
• C. Neurogenic bladder
• D. Polycystic kidney disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A prerenal condition is one that causes reduced urinary elimination by affecting the blood flow to the kidneys. Pericardial tamponade is a condition that impacts the heart's ability to pump sufficient blood, leading to decreased blood flow to vital organs such as the kidneys. This reduction in blood flow to the kidneys can result in decreased urine production. The other choices, such as nephrotoxic medications, neurogenic bladder, and polycystic kidney disease, do not primarily affect the blood flow to the kidneys and are not classified as prerenal conditions that impact urinary elimination.

3. You have been assigned to take an apical pulse for one of the patients on the nursing unit. How will you do this?

• A. You will place the stethoscope over the heart and listen for any irregular beats.
• B. You will place the stethoscope over the heart and count the beats per minute.
• C. You will place your fingertip over the patient's wrist and feel for any irregular beats.
• D. You will place your fingertip over the patient's wrist and count the beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To take an apical pulse accurately, you should place the stethoscope over the heart and count the number of beats per minute. This method provides a precise assessment of the heart rate. While listening for irregular beats is essential for assessing the heart's rhythm, the primary objective of taking an apical pulse is to determine the heart rate. Choices C and D are incorrect because the apical pulse is not taken at the wrist; instead, it is obtained by auscultating at the apex of the heart, usually at the point where the fifth intercostal space meets the midclavicular line.

4. How does the procedure for taking a pulse rate on an infant differ from an adult?

• A. Pulse rates are taken on infants using a different method.
• B. The apical pulse method is used on infants.
• C. Pulse rates on infants are taken with a sphygmomanometer.
• D. Pulse rates on infants are taken apically in the third intercostal space.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The apical pulse method is used on infants. This method involves placing a stethoscope in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, and counting the beats for a full minute. It is a preferred method for infants due to their small size and the difficulty in palpating peripheral pulses accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as pulse rates are indeed taken on infants, albeit using a different method. Choice C is incorrect as a sphygmomanometer is typically used for measuring blood pressure, not pulse rates. Choice D is incorrect as pulse rates on infants are usually taken apically in the fifth intercostal space, not the third.

5. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

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