Nursing Elites

1. A client with leukemia is being considered for a bone marrow transplant. The healthcare team is discussing the risks and benefits of this treatment and other possible treatments with the goal of inflicting the least possible harm on the client. Which principle of healthcare ethics is the team practicing?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Autonomy
• D. Justice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the principle of avoiding harm. In healthcare ethics, practitioners aim not only to do good but also to ensure they do no harm. In this scenario, the healthcare team is discussing treatment options with the intention of inflicting the least harm on the client. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to keeping promises made to clients, families, and healthcare professionals. Choice C, Autonomy, pertains to respecting a person's independence and right to make decisions. Choice D, Justice, involves fairness, equity, and the fair allocation of resources, such as healthcare services.

2. A nurse is assisting with data collection of a client who has sustained circumferential burns of both legs. What should the nurse examine first?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Peripheral pulses
• C. Blood pressure (BP)
• D. Radial pulse rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for a client with circumferential burns to the legs is to examine peripheral pulses. This is essential to ensure adequate circulation to the extremities. Circumferential burns can lead to compartment syndrome, causing decreased circulation to the affected limbs. Checking peripheral pulses is crucial to monitor for any signs of compromised circulation. While heart rate and blood pressure are important assessments in general, in the context of circumferential burns, the immediate concern is the risk of impaired circulation to the extremities. Therefore, assessing peripheral pulses takes precedence in this situation.

3. The nurse and a colleague are on the elevator after their shift, and they hear a group of healthcare providers discussing a recent client scenario. Which client right might be breached?

• A. right to refuse treatment
• B. right to continuity of care
• C. right to confidentiality
• D. right to reasonable responses to requests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The right to confidentiality of client information might be breached when client care situations are discussed in public areas or without regard to maintaining the information as private and confidential. In this scenario, the conversation on the elevator could lead to a breach of the client's right to confidentiality. The other options, such as the right to refuse treatment, right to continuity of care, and right to reasonable responses to requests, are not being breached in this instance, making them incorrect choices.

4. Which of these would be an appropriate meal for a client with Celiac disease?

• A. egg noodles with cream sauce and broccoli, oat cookie, almond milk
• B. turkey sandwich with rye bread, carrots
• C. chicken and rice, apple, and tapioca pudding
• D. granola and dried apricots with cow's milk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For individuals with Celiac disease, it's crucial to avoid gluten-containing foods. Choice C, which includes chicken, rice, apple, and tapioca pudding, is the most suitable option as all these foods are naturally gluten-free. Rice, fruits, vegetables, meat, dairy, and tapioca are all safe gluten-free options. Oats can be gluten-free if specially labeled, but many are processed on shared equipment with wheat. Granola often contains oats that may have been exposed to gluten. Dried and prepackaged fruits may contain gluten additives. Rye is a wheat derivative, and cream sauces usually contain flour as a base, making choices A and B inappropriate for individuals with Celiac disease.

5. When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:

• A. Pregnancy tests are not reliable while taking the drug.
• B. She must use a reliable form of birth control.
• C. She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
• D. She must follow up with an endocrinologist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.

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