a client who is to undergo dilation and curettage and conization of the cervix for cancer appears tense and anxious which approach would the nurse use
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. A client who is to undergo dilation and curettage and conization of the cervix for cancer appears tense and anxious. Which approach would the nurse use to support the client emotionally?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct approach for the nurse to support the client emotionally is to ask whether something is troubling the client and if she would like to talk about it. This approach acknowledges the client's anxiety and encourages communication without dismissing her feelings. Option A, explaining that the procedures are minor surgery, may invalidate the client's emotions. Option C assumes the client is worried about something specific, which may not be the case, leading to miscommunication. Option D provides false reassurance and may hinder open communication by dismissing the client's feelings as unwarranted.

2. A client who is in a late stage of pancreatic cancer intellectually understands the terminal nature of the illness. Which behaviors indicate the client is emotionally accepting the impending death?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Revising the will and planning a visit to a friend are indicative of emotional acceptance of impending death as they demonstrate realistic, productive, and constructive ways of using the remaining time. Alternating between crying and talking openly about death may suggest depression rather than acceptance. Seeking multiple medical opinions shows disbelief, denial, or desperation rather than acceptance. Refusing treatments and stating they won't help reflects anger and hopelessness, not acceptance.

3. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.

4. A college athlete sustained a complete transection of the spinal cord while practicing on a trampoline. The health care provider explained that return of function to the lower extremities is not likely. Two weeks later, the client verbalizes the need to practice for an upcoming tournament. Which conclusion would the nurse make about the client's statement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exhibiting denial.' Denial is a common defense mechanism when facing a serious health issue. The individual rejects the existence of the problem due to the overwhelming anxiety and emotional distress it causes. In this case, the athlete's desire to practice for an upcoming tournament despite being informed about the unlikely return of lower extremity function indicates denial of the severity of their condition. Choice B, 'Verbalizing a fantasy,' is incorrect as a fantasy involves creating imagined events to fulfill unconscious wishes, which is not evident here. Choice C, 'No longer able to adapt,' is incorrect because the client is actually demonstrating a maladaptive coping mechanism by denying the reality of their situation. Choice D, 'Motivated to recover mobility,' is incorrect as the client's goal of practicing for a tournament does not align with the realistic expectation of recovering mobility after a complete spinal cord transection.

5. A client who is at 28 weeks' gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What's the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client's statements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's statement indicates anticipatory grief, where she is preparing for a potential loss. This grief is not necessarily about the literal death of the baby but about the loss of the anticipated healthy full-term baby. The client may not be ready to bond with the reality of a preterm baby. Providing gentle, positive support is essential to help her cope with her feelings, as firm support may come across as dismissive. Sedation is not appropriate as it could hinder the client's emotional processing. Allowing the client to express her emotions and work through anticipatory grieving is crucial. The use of the word 'it' reflects the client's emotional struggle and is not the primary issue at hand.

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