which behavior by the client exhibits denial after a recent diagnosis
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions

1. Which behavior by the client exhibits denial after a recent diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Attempts to minimize the illness.' This behavior is a classic sign of denial, where the individual tries to downplay the seriousness of the illness to cope with it. By minimizing the illness, the client avoids facing the reality of the situation, which is characteristic of denial. Lacking an emotional response to the illness suggests suppression of emotions rather than denial. Refusing to discuss the condition with the spouse may stem from other issues like relationship strain or fear of causing distress, but it doesn't directly indicate denial. Expressing displeasure with the prescribed activity program typically reflects displaced anger, not denial of the illness.

2. Which intervention should the nurse use for a client who hallucinates, yells, and curses throughout the day?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client experiences hallucinations, yells, and curses, it is essential to seek to understand the underlying meaning of their behavior. All behavior has significance, and understanding the client's perspective can guide appropriate interventions. Ignoring the behavior may exacerbate the situation and isolating the client could lead to increased anxiety and further acting out. Explaining the impact on others is not helpful in this scenario as the client is not intentionally hallucinating; yelling and cursing are responses to the hallucinations.

3. Which action should the nurse implement when providing wound care instructions to a client who does not speak English?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When providing wound care instructions to a client who does not speak English, the nurse should speak directly to the client with the assistance of an interpreter for accurate translation. The interpreter is trained to provide objective translations in the client's primary language, ensuring the client understands the instructions and can ask questions. Using family members for translation is discouraged as they may alter instructions or feel uncomfortable discussing certain topics. Instructing a bilingual employee to read the instructions is not ideal as they may lack the necessary training in accurate interpretation, which could lead to misunderstandings in crucial wound care instructions.

4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

5. An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with which of the following illnesses?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with schizophrenia. Dopamine dysregulation is linked to some symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Depression (choice B) is more commonly associated with abnormalities in serotonin and norepinephrine. Alzheimer's disease (choice C) is primarily characterized by deficits in acetylcholine and other neurotransmitters. Anxiety disorders (choice D) are often linked to imbalances in neurotransmitters like serotonin, norepinephrine, and GABA, rather than dopamine.

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