a client who exhibits blurred and double vision and muscular weakness is informed of the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis ms the client becomes visibly
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Questions

1. A client who exhibits blurred and double vision and muscular weakness is informed of the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS). The client becomes visibly upset. Which response would the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The response 'That must have shocked you. Tell me what the health care provider told you about it' acknowledges the effect of the diagnosis on the client and explores what is known. This response shows empathy and encourages the client to share their understanding. There is no evidence of ineffective coping, so a referral to a psychiatrist is not necessary at this initial stage. The statement 'Don't worry; early treatment often alleviates symptoms of the disease' provides false reassurance as the course of MS varies for each individual and may not always respond well to treatment. The statement 'You should be glad we caught it early so it can be cured' does not address the client's current emotional state and is inaccurate; MS is a chronic autoimmune disease that currently has no cure.

2. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.

3. A client who is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is obviously upset and asks, 'Am I going to die?' Which response would the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response to the client's question regarding their prognosis is to acknowledge the variable nature of multiple sclerosis by stating that 'The prognosis varies, as most individuals have remissions and exacerbations.' This response provides realistic information while offering some hope. Choice A ('Most individuals with your disease live a normal life span.') gives false reassurance as repeated exacerbations may affect life span. Choice B ('Is your family here? I would like to explain your disease to all of you.') does not directly address the client's question and involves the family unnecessarily. Choice D ('Why don't you speak with your health care provider to get more details?') deflects the responsibility and does not address the client's immediate concerns about their prognosis.

4. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.

5. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.

Similar Questions

Which of the following examples indicates that the nurse is giving recognition as a form of therapeutic communication?
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The nurse-manager of a skilled nursing (chronic care) unit is instructing UAPs on ways to prevent complications of immobility. Which intervention should be included in this instruction?
A nurse stops at a motor vehicle collision site to render aid until the emergency personnel arrive and applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely. Later the client has to have the leg amputated and sues the nurse for malpractice. Which is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?
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