Nursing Elites

1. On the first postpartum day, a client whose infant is rooming in asks the nurse to return her baby to the nursery and bring the baby to her only at feeding times. Which response would the nurse provide?

• A. It seems that you've changed your mind about rooming in.
• B. I think you're having difficulty caring for the baby.
• C. All right. I'll inform the other nurses of your decision.
• D. You must be tired. I'll bring the baby back at feeding time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stating that it seems that the client has changed her mind opens communication and allows the client to verbalize her thoughts and feelings. This response acknowledges the client's request without being judgmental. Stating that the client is having difficulty caring for the baby is presumptuous and could make the client defensive. Informing other nurses of the client's decision without exploring the reasons behind it may not address the client's concerns. Although the client may be tired, assuming this without further discussion may overlook the client's true feelings and needs, hindering effective communication and support.

2. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?

• A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
• B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
• C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
• D. Lack of menstruation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.

3. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Reassure the client that many obese individuals have concerns about sex.
• B. Remind the client that sexual relationships can remain unaffected by obesity.
• C. Determine the frequency of sexual intercourse.
• D. Ask the client to talk about specific concerns.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Option D is the best response as it allows the client to express her specific concerns, providing the nurse with valuable assessment data. This open-ended question encourages the client to share her worries and feelings, which can guide the nurse in addressing her unique needs. Options A and B make assumptions about the client's concerns based on her weight, potentially invalidating her feelings and inhibiting effective communication. Option C is premature as understanding the client's concerns should precede discussions about the frequency of sexual intercourse, which may not address the core issues the client is facing.

4. A man who is admitted for a suicide attempt after the death of his child says, 'I hear my son telling me to come over to the other side.' Which psychotic symptom is the client experiencing?

• A. Fixed delusion
• B. Magical thinking
• C. Pathological regression
• D. Command hallucination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is experiencing a command hallucination. Command hallucinations involve auditory messages instructing harm to self or others, and giving an identity to the hallucinated voice increases the risk of compliance. A fixed delusion is a false belief held to be true despite evidence to the contrary. Magical thinking involves believing that thoughts can influence events, commonly seen in young children. Pathological regression refers to reverting to a previous developmental stage, not applicable in this scenario.

5. Which risk factor for suicide is considered the most lethal?

• A. History of alcohol and drug abuse
• B. Previous high-lethality suicide attempts
• C. Recent withdrawal from friends
• D. Disturbance of family dynamics

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Previous high-lethality suicide attempts.' This is the most lethal risk factor as it indicates that the individual has previously attempted suicide in a manner that could lead to death. This history increases the likelihood of future attempts. While substance abuse, like alcohol and drug use, is a significant risk factor for suicide, it is not considered the most lethal. Withdrawal from friends or social isolation can contribute to suicide risk but is not as directly deadly as high-lethality attempts. Disturbance of family dynamics can also be a stressor but does not represent the immediate lethality associated with a history of high-lethality suicide attempts.

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