on the first postpartum day a client whose infant is rooming in asks the nurse to return her baby to the nursery and bring the baby to her only at fee
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. On the first postpartum day, a client whose infant is rooming in asks the nurse to return her baby to the nursery and bring the baby to her only at feeding times. Which response would the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stating that it seems that the client has changed her mind opens communication and allows the client to verbalize her thoughts and feelings. This response acknowledges the client's request without being judgmental. Stating that the client is having difficulty caring for the baby is presumptuous and could make the client defensive. Informing other nurses of the client's decision without exploring the reasons behind it may not address the client's concerns. Although the client may be tired, assuming this without further discussion may overlook the client's true feelings and needs, hindering effective communication and support.

2. In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. What action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is the responsibility of the surgeon to explain the procedure to the client and obtain the client's signature on the permit. While the nurse can witness the client's signature on the permit, the procedure must first be explained by the healthcare provider or surgeon, including addressing the client's questions. Therefore, informing the surgeon is the priority to ensure proper communication and consent before the surgery. Answering the client's questions about the surgery (Choice B) may not provide accurate information and could lead to misunderstanding. Reassuring the client (Choice D) is important, but obtaining proper consent and addressing concerns should come first. Witnessing the client's signature (Choice A) is not sufficient if the client has unanswered questions and the permit is not signed.

3. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

4. A health care provider discusses with a client the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy. After the health care provider leaves the room, the client tells the nurse about being relieved that only minor surgery is necessary. Which psychological process explains this client's reaction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's reaction of believing that only minor surgery is necessary when faced with the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy is an example of repudiation. Repudiation involves a refusal to acknowledge anticipated loss as a defense mechanism against the overwhelming stress of illness. The client is psychologically denying the seriousness of the situation. The other choices are incorrect because: - Reflection (Choice A) does not apply since the client is not contemplating the issues of the situation. - Regression (Choice B) is not demonstrated as the client's behavior does not indicate reverting to an earlier stage of development. - Reconciliation (Choice D) is not applicable as the client has not made a realistic adjustment to the illness but rather is in denial of its severity.

5. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to record the amount of urine output on the client's fluid output record. The urine color and volume are within normal limits, indicating adequate hydration. There is no indication of a need to encourage increased oral fluid intake or notify the healthcare provider as the findings are normal. Palpating the client's bladder for distention is unnecessary in this scenario since the client has successfully voided a normal amount of urine after 4 hours.

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