a 17 year old asian client is being seen for lower abdominal pain in the right quadrant the client is accompanied by his parents the nurse notes that
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet

1. A 17-year-old Asian client is being seen for lower abdominal pain in the right quadrant. The client is accompanied by his parents. The nurse notes that the client's father does not make eye contact and shows little response when told that the client will need surgery. Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nurses may work with clients who have varying cultural beliefs. Because of this, nurses must remain aware of the cultural practices associated with certain ethnic groups. Asian Americans may avoid eye contact as a sign of respect; additionally, emotional responses may be avoided except for in private situations. If this family did not have a language barrier, the nurse should continue to provide appropriate information about the surgery and recognize the cultural differences that exist. Contacting an interpreter is not necessary as there was no mention of a language barrier. Calling social services to evaluate the parent's standard of care is premature and not within the nurse's immediate scope of practice. Contacting the physician about postponing the surgery is not warranted based on the information provided.

2. A client was admitted to the psychiatric unit after complaining to her friends and family that neighbors have bugged her home in order to hear all of her business. She remains aloof from other clients, paces the floor and believes that the hospital is a house of torture. Nursing interventions for the client should appropriately focus on efforts to

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for the client in this scenario is to provide interactions to help the client learn to trust staff. This approach focuses on building trust and establishing a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare team. Choice A is incorrect because simply convincing the client that the hospital staff is trying to help may not address the underlying issue of trust. Choice B is not the priority at this stage as the client is exhibiting symptoms of paranoia and discomfort. Choice D may further isolate the client and hinder the therapeutic relationship. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to engage in interactions that promote trust and a therapeutic connection between the client and the staff.

3. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is exhibiting normal grieving behaviors, so referral to a grief counselor is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Option B is relevant but is not a high-priority intervention compared to addressing the immediate grief support needs of the client. Option C is irrelevant at this time but might be important when determining the client's risk for contracting the illness. While antidepressant medication might be necessary based on further assessment, grief counseling is a more appropriate initial action as grief is a typical response to the loss of a loved one.

4. Which therapeutic technique can the nurse use when an anxious client exhibits pressured and rambling speech?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Focusing is the appropriate therapeutic technique to use when an anxious client exhibits pressured and rambling speech. By focusing on one specific aspect, the intended meaning is easier to understand and helps the client stay on track. Touch is not recommended in this scenario as it can invade the client's personal space and potentially increase anxiety. Silence may allow the client to continue rambling without addressing the underlying concerns. Summarizing requires the identification and exploration of the client's concerns, which may be challenging when the speech is pressured and disorganized.

5. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.

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