a 17 year old asian client is being seen for lower abdominal pain in the right quadrant the client is accompanied by his parents the nurse notes that
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet

1. A 17-year-old Asian client is being seen for lower abdominal pain in the right quadrant. The client is accompanied by his parents. The nurse notes that the client's father does not make eye contact and shows little response when told that the client will need surgery. Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nurses may work with clients who have varying cultural beliefs. Because of this, nurses must remain aware of the cultural practices associated with certain ethnic groups. Asian Americans may avoid eye contact as a sign of respect; additionally, emotional responses may be avoided except for in private situations. If this family did not have a language barrier, the nurse should continue to provide appropriate information about the surgery and recognize the cultural differences that exist. Contacting an interpreter is not necessary as there was no mention of a language barrier. Calling social services to evaluate the parent's standard of care is premature and not within the nurse's immediate scope of practice. Contacting the physician about postponing the surgery is not warranted based on the information provided.

2. A client who is at 28 weeks' gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What's the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client's statements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's statement indicates anticipatory grief, where she is preparing for a potential loss. This grief is not necessarily about the literal death of the baby but about the loss of the anticipated healthy full-term baby. The client may not be ready to bond with the reality of a preterm baby. Providing gentle, positive support is essential to help her cope with her feelings, as firm support may come across as dismissive. Sedation is not appropriate as it could hinder the client's emotional processing. Allowing the client to express her emotions and work through anticipatory grieving is crucial. The use of the word 'it' reflects the client's emotional struggle and is not the primary issue at hand.

3. Which of the following interventions is essential when working with a client who has antisocial personality disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When working with a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder, it is crucial to set strict limits on their behavior. This disorder is characterized by manipulative behavior, impulsivity, and deceitfulness. By setting strict limits, the nurse can establish boundaries to prevent the client from manipulating others or engaging in disruptive behaviors. Monitoring intake and output (Choice A) is not directly related to managing antisocial personality disorder. Providing diversion (Choice C) or limiting visits from family or friends (Choice D) may not address the core issues associated with this disorder, such as manipulation and boundary violations.

4. A client has a nursing diagnosis of Altered sleep patterns related to nocturia. Which client instruction is important for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nocturia is characterized by urination during the night, disrupting sleep patterns. Instructing the client to decrease intake of fluids after the evening meal (Option A) can help reduce the production of urine, thereby decreasing the need to void at night. Cranberry juice (Option B) is beneficial for preventing bladder infections but does not address the issue of nocturia. While warm decaffeinated beverages (Option C) may promote sleep, consuming fluids close to bedtime can exacerbate nocturia. Consulting the healthcare provider about a sleeping pill (Option D) is not the first-line intervention and may lead to urinary incontinence if the client is sedated and unable to awaken to void, worsening the nocturia issue.

5. A client who is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is obviously upset and asks, 'Am I going to die?' Which response would the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response to the client's question regarding their prognosis is to acknowledge the variable nature of multiple sclerosis by stating that 'The prognosis varies, as most individuals have remissions and exacerbations.' This response provides realistic information while offering some hope. Choice A ('Most individuals with your disease live a normal life span.') gives false reassurance as repeated exacerbations may affect life span. Choice B ('Is your family here? I would like to explain your disease to all of you.') does not directly address the client's question and involves the family unnecessarily. Choice D ('Why don't you speak with your health care provider to get more details?') deflects the responsibility and does not address the client's immediate concerns about their prognosis.

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Which defense mechanism would the nurse conclude a female client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, who washes her hands more than 20 times a day, is using to ease anxiety?
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