Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?

• A. Oculogyric crisis
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.

2. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing a migraine headache?

• A. Acute pain related to biologic and chemical factors
• B. Anxiety related to change in or threat to health status
• C. Hopelessness related to deteriorating physiological condition
• D. Risk for side effects related to medical therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing a migraine headache is 'Acute pain related to biologic and chemical factors.' Migraine headaches are characterized by severe throbbing pain, often accompanied by sensitivity to light and sound. Addressing the acute pain is crucial to improve the patient's comfort and quality of life. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority nursing diagnoses for a patient with a migraine headache. Anxiety, hopelessness, and risk for side effects may not be as urgent as managing the acute pain associated with a migraine.

3. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present on the final half of exhalation. One hour later the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client

• A. Has increased airway obstruction
• B. Has improved airway obstruction
• C. Needs to be suctioned
• D. Exhibits hyperventilation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The higher pitched a sound is, the more narrow the airway. Therefore, the obstruction has increased or worsened. With no evidence of secretions, there is no support to indicate the need for suctioning. Wheezes changing from low-pitched to high-pitched and extending throughout exhalation suggest a progression in airway constriction, indicating an increase in airway obstruction. Option B is incorrect because the change in wheezes from low to high pitch does not suggest an improvement in airway obstruction. Option C is incorrect as there is no indication of secretions requiring suctioning. Option D is incorrect as hyperventilation is not typically associated with the described change in wheezes.

4. A client with Multiple Sclerosis reports a constant, burning, tingling pain in the shoulders. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication for this type of pain?

• A. alprazolam (Xanax)
• B. Corticosteroid injection
• C. gabapentin (Neurontin)
• D. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For neuropathic pain associated with conditions like Multiple Sclerosis, medications like gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, are commonly used. Gabapentin helps in managing nerve pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not primarily indicated for neuropathic pain. Corticosteroid injections are more suitable for inflammatory conditions like arthritis, not for neuropathic pain. Hydrocodone/acetaminophen is an opioid combination used for moderate to severe pain, but it is not the first-line choice for neuropathic pain.

5. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an open stab wound to the left chest. What is the first action that the nurse should take?

• A. Position the patient so that the left chest is dependent
• B. Tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound
• C. Cover the sucking chest wound firmly with an occlusive dressing
• D. Keep the head of the patient's bed at no more than 30 degrees elevation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action for a patient with an open stab wound to the chest is to tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound. This dressing technique allows air to escape during expiration but prevents air from entering the pleural space during inspiration, helping to prevent tension pneumothorax. Placing the patient so that the left chest is dependent or covering the wound with an occlusive dressing can trap air in the pleural space, leading to tension pneumothorax. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees helps facilitate breathing and is not the first action to take when managing an open chest wound.

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