NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. When teaching the client with tuberculosis about follow-up home care, the nurse should emphasize that a laboratory appointment for which of the following lab tests is critical?
- A. Liver function
- B. Kidney function
- C. Blood sugar
- D. Cardiac enzymes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should emphasize the importance of monitoring liver function tests in clients taking INH due to the risk of hepatocellular injury and hepatitis associated with this medication. Regular assessment of liver enzymes can help detect liver damage early. Monitoring kidney function, blood sugar levels, or cardiac enzymes is not specifically required for clients taking INH and tuberculosis treatment.
2. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:
- A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination.
- B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination.
- C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination.
- D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.
3. When caring for an asthmatic patient with an early-phase reaction, which of the following is indicative of an early-phase reaction?
- A. Rapid bronchospasms
- B. Inflammatory epithelial lesions
- C. Increased secretions
- D. Increased mucosal edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rapid bronchospasms are a symptom of an early-phase reaction in an asthmatic patient. During the early phase, bronchospasms occur due to immediate hypersensitivity reactions. Inflammatory epithelial lesions, increased secretions, and increased mucosal edema are typically seen in late-phase reactions as part of the inflammatory response that occurs later. Therefore, rapid bronchospasms are most indicative of an early-phase reaction.
4. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present on the final half of exhalation. One hour later the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client
- A. Has increased airway obstruction
- B. Has improved airway obstruction
- C. Needs to be suctioned
- D. Exhibits hyperventilation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The higher pitched a sound is, the more narrow the airway. Therefore, the obstruction has increased or worsened. With no evidence of secretions, there is no support to indicate the need for suctioning. Wheezes changing from low-pitched to high-pitched and extending throughout exhalation suggest a progression in airway constriction, indicating an increase in airway obstruction. Option B is incorrect because the change in wheezes from low to high pitch does not suggest an improvement in airway obstruction. Option C is incorrect as there is no indication of secretions requiring suctioning. Option D is incorrect as hyperventilation is not typically associated with the described change in wheezes.
5. During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute, and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to:
- A. Increase fluids that are high in protein
- B. Restrict fluids
- C. Force fluids and reassess blood pressure
- D. Limit fluids to non-caffeine beverages
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client with cardiomyopathy is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension, which is characterized by a significant drop in systolic blood pressure (>15 mm Hg) and an increase in heart rate (>15%), along with dizziness. These symptoms suggest volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency. The appropriate nursing intervention in this case is to force fluids and reassess blood pressure to address the underlying issue of volume depletion and improve hemodynamic stability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluids high in protein, restricting fluids, or limiting fluids to non-caffeine beverages are not appropriate actions for a client experiencing orthostatic hypotension and signs of volume depletion.
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