a 57 year old male client has hemoglobin of 10 mgdl and a hematocrit of 32 what would be the most appropriate follow up by the home care nurse
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram

1. What would be the most appropriate follow-up by the home care nurse for a 57-year-old male client with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and a hematocrit of 32%?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools. Normal hemoglobin for males is 13.0 - 18 g/dl, and normal hematocrit for males is 42 - 52%. The values of hemoglobin and hematocrit provided for the client are below normal, indicating mild anemia. The first step for the nurse is to inquire about any signs of bleeding or changes in stools that could suggest bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. This helps in assessing the possible cause of the low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The other options are not appropriate as calling 911 and going to the emergency department immediately is not warranted for mild anemia, scheduling a repeat test in 1 month delays addressing the current concern, and referring the client to a hematologist may be premature without investigating the cause of the low levels first.

2. A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and pulse oximetry indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with metabolic alkalosis and an O2 saturation of 94%, placing the patient on high-flow oxygen is the correct action. Even though the O2 saturation seems adequate, metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues. Therefore, providing high-flow oxygen can help compensate for this. Administering bicarbonate would exacerbate the alkalosis. While completing a head-to-toe assessment and obtaining repeat ABGs are important interventions, the priority in this scenario is to improve oxygen delivery by placing the patient on high-flow oxygen.

3. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the emergency room for an ischemic stroke with marked functional deficits. The physician is considering the use of fibrinolytic therapy with TPA (tissue plasminogen activator). Which history-gathering question would not be important for the nurse to ask?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Have you had any blood transfusions within the previous year?' This question is not relevant in the context of considering fibrinolytic therapy with TPA for an ischemic stroke. Blood transfusions within the previous year do not directly impact the decision to use TPA in the treatment of an acute ischemic stroke. The focus should be on factors such as the time of symptom onset, current medications like blood thinners, and recent history of strokes or head trauma, as these are more directly related to the decision-making process for administering TPA in this emergency situation.

5. The nurse is caring for a client in the late stages of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (A.L.S.). Which finding would the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the late stages of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (A.L.S.), respiratory muscles are affected, leading to shallow respirations. Confusion is not typically associated with A.L.S. Loss of half of the visual field suggests a neurological issue unrelated to A.L.S., while tonic-clonic seizures are not commonly seen in A.L.S. patients. Shallow respirations are a hallmark sign of respiratory muscle weakness in A.L.S. due to the degeneration of motor neurons.

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