Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use when working with a Jackson-Pratt drain?

• A. Strip the tubing to remove clots by milking the tubing back toward the client
• B. Empty the drain when the amount of fluid reaches 25 cc
• C. Strip the tubing to remove clots by milking the tubing away from the client
• D. Maintain the level of the drain above the client's incision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A Jackson-Pratt drain is a type of active wound drain that may be placed following a surgical procedure. This drain actively draws excess blood and fluid out of the wound. If clots develop within the tubing, the nurse should strip the tubing by milking it in a direction away from the client. This action helps to ensure the drain remains patent and effective. Option A is incorrect because the tubing should be milked away from the client, not towards. Option B is incorrect as the drain should be emptied based on the healthcare provider's orders, not at a fixed volume. Option D is incorrect because the level of the drain should be below the level of the incision to allow drainage by gravity.

2. During an intake screening for a patient with hypertension who has been taking ramipril for 4 weeks, which statement made by the patient would be most important for the nurse to pass on to the physician?

• A. ''I get dizzy when I get out of bed.''
• B. ''I'm urinating much more than I used to.''
• C. ''I've been running on the treadmill for 10 minutes each day.''
• D. ''I can't get rid of this cough.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I can't get rid of this cough.'' Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as an adverse effect. This symptom can be indicative of bradykinin accumulation caused by ACE inhibitors. It is important for the nurse to inform the physician about this side effect so that a medication change to another class of antihypertensives, such as an ARB, may be considered. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the common adverse effects of ramipril and are not as concerning for a patient on this medication.

3. The nurse develops a plan of care to prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient. Which nursing action will be most effective?

• A. Turn and reposition immobile patients at least every 2 hours.
• B. Place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions.
• C. Monitor for respiratory symptoms in immunosuppressed patients.
• D. Insert nasogastric tube for feedings in patients with swallowing problems.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient, the most effective nursing action is to place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions. This position helps decrease the risk of aspiration as it prevents pooling of secretions and facilitates drainage. Turning and repositioning immobile patients every 2 hours is essential for preventing pressure ulcers and improving circulation but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Monitoring respiratory symptoms in immunosuppressed patients is crucial to detect pneumonia early, but it does not directly prevent aspiration. Inserting a nasogastric tube for feedings in patients with swallowing problems may be necessary for nutritional support but does not address the risk of aspiration directly. Patients at high risk for aspiration include those with altered consciousness, difficulty swallowing, and those with nasogastric intubation, among others. Placing patients with altered consciousness in a side-lying position is a key intervention to reduce the risk of aspiration in this population. Other high-risk groups for aspiration include those who are seriously ill, have poor dentition, or are on acid-reducing medications.

4. The parent of an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease is receiving feeding instructions from the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse give to the parent to assist in reducing the episodes of emesis?

• A. Provide smaller, more frequent feedings.
• B. Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
• C. Thin the feedings by adding water to the formula.
• D. Thicken the feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves the backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to sphincter issues. To reduce episodes of emesis, it is recommended to thicken feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula. This helps to weigh down the contents in the stomach, making regurgitation less likely. Providing smaller, more frequent feedings and burping the infant frequently are beneficial strategies for gastroesophageal reflux. However, in this case, thickening the feedings is the most appropriate intervention. Thinning the feedings by adding water to the formula is not recommended as it can decrease the caloric density of the formula and may not help in reducing reflux.

5. For a 6-year-old child hospitalized with moderate edema and mild hypertension associated with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), which one of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate?

• A. Institute seizure precautions
• B. Weigh the child twice per shift
• C. Encourage the child to eat protein-rich foods
• D. Relieve boredom through physical activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Institute seizure precautions. The severity of the acute phase of AGN is variable and unpredictable; therefore, a child with edema, hypertension, and gross hematuria may be subject to complications, and anticipatory preparation such as seizure precautions is needed. Weighing the child twice per shift may be necessary for monitoring fluid balance but is not specifically related to the complications of AGN. Encouraging the child to eat protein-rich foods is important for overall nutrition but does not directly address the potential complications of AGN. Relieving boredom through physical activity is beneficial for overall well-being but is not the priority in this situation where seizure precautions are essential.

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