a patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging mri scan for suspected lung cancer which of the following is a contraindication to the study f
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has a pacemaker. A pacemaker is a contraindication to MRI scanning due to the interference with the magnetic fields of the MRI scanner. This interference can potentially deactivate the pacemaker, putting the patient at risk. Patients with cardiac implantable electronic devices (CIED) are at risk for inappropriate device therapy, device heating/movement, and arrhythmia during MRI. This necessitates special precautions such as scheduling in a CIED blocked slot or having electrophysiology nurse or technician support. It is important to ensure that the patient's pacemaker is MRI conditional before proceeding with the scan. The other choices, such as being allergic to shellfish, suffering from claustrophobia, or taking antipsychotic medication, are not direct contraindications to undergoing an MRI scan for suspected lung cancer.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is post-op day #3 after an abdominal hernia repair. After a bout of harsh coughing, the client states, 'it feels like something gave way.' The nurse assesses his abdomen and notes an evisceration from the surgical site. What is the next action of the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A wound evisceration occurs when the edges of an abdominal wound separate, allowing the coils of the intestine to protrude outside of the body. The nurse should notify the physician at once if this occurs. While waiting for treatment, the nurse should cover the intestines with sterile gauze soaked in saline. Turning the client on his side or asking the client to take a breath and hold it are not appropriate actions in this situation. Pushing the abdominal contents back inside the wound using sterile gloves can lead to infection and is not within the nurse's scope of practice.

3. To detect possible complications in a patient with severe cirrhosis who has bleeding esophageal varices, it is most important for the nurse to monitor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient with severe cirrhosis and bleeding esophageal varices, monitoring ammonia levels is crucial. Severe liver dysfunction impairs the metabolism of protein in the GI tract, leading to increased ammonia levels. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Monitoring bilirubin levels is important for assessing liver function and jaundice but may not directly reflect the risk of complications from bleeding esophageal varices. Potassium levels are important but not the most critical in this scenario. Prothrombin time is essential for evaluating coagulation status but does not directly relate to the risk of complications from bleeding esophageal varices in this patient.

4. A 24-year-old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Based on the presenting signs and symptoms, which of the following would you most likely suspect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypercalcemia. In this case, the patient's history of myeloma, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria suggests hypercalcemia. Elevated calcium levels can lead to polyuria, severe abdominal pain, and confusion. Diverticulosis (Choice A), characterized by small pouches in the colon wall, typically does not present with confusion and polyuria. Hypocalcemia (Choice C) is unlikely given the symptoms described. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice D) does not typically cause confusion and polyuria as seen in hypercalcemia.

5. The parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy ask if the infant will be able to control their bladder as they get older. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect where the infant is born with the bladder located on the outside of the body. Surgical repair typically occurs within the first 1 to 2 days of life. In the following 3 to 5 years post-surgery, urine will drain freely from the urethra due to the absence of a sphincter mechanism. This period allows the bladder to develop capacity as the child grows. Subsequent surgical interventions will be required to establish a functioning sphincter mechanism. Therefore, the correct response is that the child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, leading to urine draining freely. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the physiological process and management of bladder exstrophy.

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