NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Record the amount on the client's fluid output record.
- B. Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
- D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to record the amount of urine output on the client's fluid output record. The urine color and volume are within normal limits, indicating adequate hydration. There is no indication of a need to encourage increased oral fluid intake or notify the healthcare provider as the findings are normal. Palpating the client's bladder for distention is unnecessary in this scenario since the client has successfully voided a normal amount of urine after 4 hours.
2. Which assessment data would be most important to obtain from an Asian-American client with major depressive disorder who maintains traditional cultural beliefs and values?
- A. Dietary practices
- B. Concept of space
- C. Immigration status
- D. Role within the family
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important assessment data to obtain from an Asian-American client with major depressive disorder who maintains traditional cultural beliefs and values is their role within the family. In traditional Asian cultures, the family holds significant importance and plays a central role in influencing an individual's well-being. Understanding the client's role within the family can provide crucial insights into their support system, stressors, and coping mechanisms. Dietary practices, concept of space, and immigration status, while potentially relevant, are not as vital in this context compared to understanding the dynamics and influence of the family structure on the individual's mental health.
3. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?
- A. Pick's disease
- B. Syphilis
- C. Encephalopathy
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.
4. When a client who has had a mastectomy sees her incision for the first time, she exclaims, 'I look horrible! Will it ever look better?' Which response would the nurse provide?
- A. 'You seem shocked by the way you look now.'
- B. 'Now that the tumor is gone, the area will heal quickly.'
- C. After it heals, others won't even know you had surgery.'
- D. 'You will feel better about it when the swelling subsides.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response, 'You seem shocked by the way you look now,' acknowledges the client's feelings and provides an opportunity for the client to express emotions freely. This reflection of feelings may help promote eventual acceptance of body image changes. Choices B, C, and D provide false reassurance and negate the client's feelings. Saying that the area will heal quickly now that the tumor is gone dismisses the client's concerns. Similarly, stating that others won't know about the surgery or that the client will feel better once the swelling subsides does not address the client's current emotional state and may undermine trust in the nurse-client relationship.
5. What is the nurse's priority action when a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells experiences tingling in the fingers and headache?
- A. Call the health care provider (HCP).
- B. Stop the transfusion.
- C. Slow the infusion rate.
- D. Assess the intravenous (IV) site for infiltration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion experiences tingling in the fingers and headache, these symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the transfusion. The nurse's priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion and initiate a normal saline infusion at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. This helps maintain the client's vein patency while addressing the adverse reactions. After stopping the transfusion and initiating the saline infusion, the nurse should assess the client, including vital signs evaluation. Subsequently, the healthcare provider should be notified. Calling the healthcare provider is important, but it should be done after the immediate action of stopping the transfusion. Slowing the infusion rate is not appropriate during a suspected transfusion reaction as it can exacerbate the adverse effects. Assessing the IV site for infiltration is a routine nursing intervention and is not the priority when managing a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.
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