Nursing Elites

1. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Record the amount on the client's fluid output record.
• B. Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
• D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to record the amount of urine output on the client's fluid output record. The urine color and volume are within normal limits, indicating adequate hydration. There is no indication of a need to encourage increased oral fluid intake or notify the healthcare provider as the findings are normal. Palpating the client's bladder for distention is unnecessary in this scenario since the client has successfully voided a normal amount of urine after 4 hours.

2. Which defense mechanism would the nurse conclude a female client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, who washes her hands more than 20 times a day, is using to ease anxiety?

• A. Undoing
• B. Projection
• C. Introjection
• D. Displacement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Undoing.' Undoing is a defense mechanism where the individual tries to negate a previous act to relieve guilt or anxiety. In this case, the client washing her hands excessively is trying to 'undo' perceived contamination or guilt associated with not washing. Projection (choice B) involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or impulses to others, which is not demonstrated in this scenario. Introjection (choice C) is the process of internalizing beliefs or values of others, which is also not applicable in this context. Displacement (choice D) involves redirecting emotions from one target to another, which does not align with the client's behavior of handwashing as a response to anxiety in this case.

3. A 28-year-old woman is recovering from her third consecutive spontaneous abortion in 2 years. Which is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for this client at her follow-up appointment?

• A. Focusing on the client's physical needs
• B. Encouraging the client to verbalize her feelings about the loss
• C. Reminding the client that she will be able to become pregnant again
• D. Encouraging the client to think of herself, her husband, and their future

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client recovering from multiple spontaneous abortions is to encourage the client to verbalize her feelings about the loss. This allows the client to express and process her emotions, facilitating the grieving process and emotional healing. Focusing solely on the client's physical needs, as in choice A, overlooks the importance of addressing the emotional aspect of the client's experience. Choice C, reminding the client that she will be able to become pregnant again, fails to acknowledge the current loss and may minimize the client's feelings of grief. Choice D, encouraging the client to think of herself, her husband, and their future, does not directly address the client's immediate emotional needs related to the recent loss. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate intervention to support the client in coping with her emotional distress.

4. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

5. What approach should the nurse use when a manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors asks the nurse to talk while the nurse is orienting a new client to the unit?

• A. Suggest that the client requesting attention speak with another staff member.
• B. Leave the new client, saying, 'I'll talk with the other client until things calm down.'
• C. Introduce the two clients and suggest that the client join them on a tour of the facility.
• D. Say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should respond to the manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors by setting realistic limits on behavior without rejecting the client. Therefore, the correct approach is to say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.' This response acknowledges the client's request while prioritizing the needs of the new client and setting appropriate boundaries. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suggesting that the client speak with another staff member would be a rejection of the client, not the behavior. Leaving the new client to attend to the manipulative client would encourage further manipulation and disrupt the orientation process for the new client. Introducing the two clients and suggesting a tour is inconsistent with setting limits and does not address the manipulative behavior being displayed.

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