the nurse assesses a 35 year old multiparous client who is scheduled for a tubal ligation to determine her emotional response to the planned procedure
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions

1. The client is a 35-year-old multiparous individual scheduled for a tubal ligation. The nurse assesses the client's emotional response to the planned procedure. Which factor in the client's history will contribute to the healthy resolution of any emotional problem associated with sterilization?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is feeling that her family is complete and she now has the children she planned for. Many couples in their 30s who feel that their families are complete choose sterilization as their method of contraception. Sterilization by means of tubal ligation should not be expected to have an effect on dysmenorrhea. The decision to undergo sterilization should be the individual's own choice and should not be influenced by others, including partners. Decisions regarding sterilization should ideally be made when the individual is not under stress, such as after recovery from a previous complicated birth. Therefore, the key factor contributing to a healthy resolution of emotional issues related to sterilization is the feeling of family completeness and achieving the planned number of children.

2. The nurse selects the best site for insertion of an IV catheter in the client's right arm. Which documentation should the nurse use to identify the placement of the IV access?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the right cephalic vein. The cephalic vein is a large and superficial vein commonly used for IV access. Documenting the specific anatomic name of the vein used for IV access, such as the cephalic vein, is essential for accurate medical records. Option A, the left brachial vein, is incorrect as the brachial vein is too deep to be accessed for IV infusion. Option C, the dorsal side of the right wrist, is not a recommended IV access site due to fragile veins and potential pain for the patient. Option D, right upper extremity, is too broad and lacks the specificity necessary for precise documentation of the IV access site.

3. An older client who had abdominal surgery 3 days earlier was given a barbiturate for sleep and is now requesting to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Barbiturates cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, increasing the risk of falls. Therefore, the nurse should assist the client to the bathroom to ensure safety. Using a bedpan is not necessary if the client can safely walk to the bathroom. Asking about bowel movements or voiding, as in option C, is irrelevant to the immediate safety concern of assisting the client to the bathroom. Assessing the client's bladder, as in option D, is unnecessary in this situation as there is no indication that the client cannot communicate his or her needs effectively. The priority here is to prevent falls and ensure the client's safety while assisting to the bathroom.

4. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.

5. After 5 years of unprotected intercourse, a childless couple comes to the fertility clinic. The husband tells the nurse that his parents have promised to make a down payment on a house for them if his wife gets pregnant this year. Which response would the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the emotional challenge the couple is facing due to the added pressure of the incentive from the husband's parents. By expressing empathy and understanding, the nurse encourages the couple to open up about their feelings and concerns. Choice B is not the best response as it dismisses the husband's situation and fails to address the emotional impact of the added pressure. Choice C focuses on the parents' offer rather than the couple's emotional state, which is not the primary concern in this situation. Choice D, mentioning the duration of infertility, may come across as insensitive and may hinder open communication by potentially making the couple feel judged or discouraged.

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