NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. The client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns is at risk of infection. What intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?
- A. Administration of plasma expanders
- B. Use of careful handwashing technique
- C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
- D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the use of careful handwashing technique. Proper handwashing is the most effective way to prevent the transmission of infectious organisms. Option A, administration of plasma expanders, addresses hypovolemia in burn patients but does not directly decrease the risk of infection. Option C, application of a topical antibacterial cream, is beneficial but not as effective as proper handwashing in preventing infection. Option D, limiting visitors, may help reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens but is not as critical as ensuring healthcare providers maintain strict hand hygiene, which is the cornerstone of infection control in any healthcare setting.
2. A client with untreatable metastasized cancer tells the nurse, 'I think they made a mistake. I don't think I have cancer. I feel too good to be dying.' Which stage of grief is the client experiencing?
- A. Anger
- B. Denial
- C. Bargaining
- D. Acceptance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client is experiencing the stage of denial. This is evident as the client is having difficulty accepting the reality of their diagnosis and denies the presence of cancer despite the evidence. During the anger stage, the individual expresses anger about their situation, questioning why it is happening to them. Bargaining involves attempting to negotiate for more time or a different outcome, acknowledging the reality of death but trying to delay it. Acceptance, on the other hand, is characterized by coming to terms with the inevitability of death and preparing for it peacefully. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's disbelief and refusal to accept the diagnosis align with the denial stage of grief.
3. The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?
- A. At home, I take my pills at 8:00 am.
- B. It costs a lot of money to buy all of these pills.
- C. I get so tired of taking pills every day.
- D. This is a new pill I have never taken before.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client stating, 'This is a new pill I have never taken before,' is the correct answer as it indicates a potential discrepancy in the medication order. This statement requires further assessment to ensure the medication is correct, verify if it is a new prescription or a different manufacturer, and determine if the client needs additional instructions. While the timing of medication administration (option A) is important, it may not be as critical as ensuring the accuracy of the medication being administered. Option B, regarding the cost of pills, is relevant for discharge planning but does not directly impact the immediate administration of the medication. Option C, expressing tiredness from taking pills daily, may warrant discussion on adherence or side effects but does not raise immediate concerns about the specific medication being administered.
4. What is the nurse's priority action when a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells experiences tingling in the fingers and headache?
- A. Call the health care provider (HCP).
- B. Stop the transfusion.
- C. Slow the infusion rate.
- D. Assess the intravenous (IV) site for infiltration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion experiences tingling in the fingers and headache, these symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the transfusion. The nurse's priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion and initiate a normal saline infusion at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. This helps maintain the client's vein patency while addressing the adverse reactions. After stopping the transfusion and initiating the saline infusion, the nurse should assess the client, including vital signs evaluation. Subsequently, the healthcare provider should be notified. Calling the healthcare provider is important, but it should be done after the immediate action of stopping the transfusion. Slowing the infusion rate is not appropriate during a suspected transfusion reaction as it can exacerbate the adverse effects. Assessing the IV site for infiltration is a routine nursing intervention and is not the priority when managing a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.
5. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
- A. 18-24 years
- B. 25-34 years
- C. 35-44 years
- D. 45-64 years
Correct answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
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