Nursing Elites

1. The client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns is at risk of infection. What intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?

• A. Administration of plasma expanders
• B. Use of careful handwashing technique
• C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
• D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the use of careful handwashing technique. Proper handwashing is the most effective way to prevent the transmission of infectious organisms. Option A, administration of plasma expanders, addresses hypovolemia in burn patients but does not directly decrease the risk of infection. Option C, application of a topical antibacterial cream, is beneficial but not as effective as proper handwashing in preventing infection. Option D, limiting visitors, may help reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens but is not as critical as ensuring healthcare providers maintain strict hand hygiene, which is the cornerstone of infection control in any healthcare setting.

2. What initial treatment would the nurse expect for a preschool-aged child experiencing severe fear of the dark?

• A. Prescription medication
• B. Mental health counseling
• C. Cognitive behavioral therapy
• D. Repetition of brave statements

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repetition of brave statements is an effective initial treatment for preschool-aged children with severe fear of the dark. This technique involves encouraging the child to repeat positive and reassuring statements to themselves to build confidence and reduce fear. Prescription medication is not typically the first-line approach for this type of fear in children due to potential side effects and safety concerns. Mental health counseling and cognitive behavioral therapy may be considered if the fear persists or is severe, but they are usually not the initial treatments for preschool-aged children with fear of the dark.

3. Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?

• A. 'At your age, sex isn't that important.''
• B. ''That is a natural occurrence at your age.''
• C. ''You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.''
• D. 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.

4. What does the E in the acronym DELIRIUM represent in causes contributing to delirium?

• A. EEG
• B. EKG
• C. Electrolytes
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The E in the acronym DELIRIUM stands for Electrolytes. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to delirium. The other letters in the acronym represent: D = Dementia; L = Lung, liver, heart, kidney, brain; I = Infection; R = Rx Drugs; I = Injury, Pain, Stress; U = Unfamiliar environment; M = Metabolic. It is crucial to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium is often reversible with treatment of underlying causes. Dementia should only be considered after ruling out delirium, as addressing the contributing factors may alleviate the delirium state.

5. A client experiences postpartum hemorrhage eight hours after the birth of twins. Following administration of IV fluids and 500 ml of whole blood, her hemoglobin and hematocrit are within normal limits. She asks the nurse whether she should continue to breastfeed the infants. Which of the following is based on sound rationale?

• A. Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.
• B. Breastfeeding twins will take too much energy after the hemorrhage.
• C. The blood transfusion may increase the risks to you and the babies.
• D. Lactation should be delayed until the 'real milk' is secreted.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.' Stimulation of the breast during nursing releases oxytocin, which contracts the uterus. This contraction is especially important following hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because breastfeeding can actually help prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the blood transfusion is aimed at restoring the client's blood volume and should not significantly impact the babies. Choice D is incorrect as lactation should not be delayed, as breastfeeding can provide numerous benefits to both the mother and infants, including aiding in the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage.

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