Nursing Elites

1. According to psychodynamic theory, what purpose do delusions serve?

• A. Delusions are a defense against anxiety caused by real or imagined threats.
• B. Magical thinking is a delusion that ensures desirable outcomes.
• C. Delusions are a method of dealing with and interpreting external stimuli.
• D. Subconsciously, delusions are a way to safely express anger and hostility.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to psychodynamic theory, delusions serve as a defense mechanism against anxiety triggered by real or perceived threats. Delusions are the individual's unconscious way of protecting themselves from overwhelming feelings of anxiety. Magical thinking, on the other hand, involves believing that one's thoughts can influence external events. This is not the same as delusions. Delusions are not a way of interpreting external stimuli but rather a defense mechanism. Expressing anger and hostility is typically associated with defense mechanisms like displacement or projection, not delusions.

2. During the beginning phase of a therapeutic relationship, why is a clear understanding of participants' roles important?

• A. Understanding what will be discussed
• B. Knowing that the nurse is trying to be helpful
• C. Knowing what to expect from the relationship
• D. Preparing for termination of the relationship

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the initial stages of a therapeutic relationship, having a clear understanding of participants' roles is crucial as it helps in defining the structure and boundaries of the relationship. This clarity assists in setting expectations and establishing a framework for interaction, allowing the client to focus on the therapeutic process rather than on uncertainties regarding their role or the nurse's role. Option A, understanding what will be discussed, is important but not directly related to defining roles. Option B, knowing that the nurse is trying to be helpful, is about the intent of the nurse rather than the roles of the participants. Option D, preparing for termination of the relationship, is premature in the beginning phase and not directly related to understanding roles.

3. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?

• A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
• B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
• C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
• D. Lack of menstruation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.

4. Which is a true statement regarding stress related disorders?

• A. Stress related disorders are only caused by stress
• B. Symptoms of stress related disorders would not exist if the client was not experiencing stress
• C. Stress related disorders are also called psycho-physiologic disorders
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that stress related disorders are also called psycho-physiologic disorders. These disorders have a physiologic basis for their development, but stress can exacerbate the symptoms. While stress plays a significant role in these disorders, they are not solely caused by stress. Choice A is incorrect as stress is a contributing factor rather than the sole cause. Choice B is incorrect because symptoms of stress related disorders can persist even when the individual is not actively experiencing stress. Choice D is incorrect as there is a true statement among the choices, which is that stress related disorders are also known as psycho-physiologic disorders.

5. When performing a return demonstration of using a gait belt for a female patient with right-sided weakness, which observation indicates that the caregiver has learned the correct procedure?

• A. Standing on the female patient's strong side, the caregiver is ready to hold the gait belt if any evidence of weakness is observed.
• B. Standing on the female patient's weak side, the caregiver provides security by holding the gait belt from the back.
• C. Standing behind the female patient, the caregiver provides balance by holding both sides of the gait belt.
• D. Standing slightly in front and to the right of the female patient, the caregiver guides her forward by gently pulling on the gait belt.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assisting a patient with right-sided weakness using a gait belt, the caregiver must stand on the weak side of the patient to provide optimal support and security. By standing on the weak side and holding the gait belt from the back, the caregiver can effectively prevent falls and guide the patient's movements. This position allows for better control over the patient's balance. Standing on the strong side (option A) does not offer the necessary support if the patient leans towards the weak side. Standing behind the patient and holding both sides of the gait belt (option C) does not provide focused support to the weak side. Standing slightly in front and to the right (option D) may not offer adequate assistance to prevent falls on the weak side, making it an incorrect choice.

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