the nurse evaluates the clients progress and determines that one of the nursing diagnoses on the clients care plan has been resolved how should the nu
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. The nurse evaluates the client's progress and determines that one of the nursing diagnoses on the client's care plan has been resolved. How should the nurse document this so that it is best communicated to the healthcare team?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To discontinue a diagnosis once it has been resolved, cross it off with a single line or highlight it, then write initials and date. Some agency forms may require the nurse to put date and initials in a 'Date Resolved' column. Using Liquid PaperTM is not a legal way to amend client records as it can obscure the original documentation. Recopying the care plan without the resolved diagnosis can lead to confusion and inaccuracies in the client's record. Writing a nursing progress note indicating that the outcome goals have been achieved is important but should not be the sole method used to communicate the resolution of a nursing diagnosis. Drawing a single line through the resolved diagnosis on the care plan and documenting the nurse's initials and date is the most effective way to communicate the resolution of a nursing diagnosis to the healthcare team.

2. Which of the following best describes Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) is a therapeutic approach used to address negative thoughts or traumatic memories, particularly in individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder. During EMDR, the client concentrates on a distressing thought or memory and the associated emotions while engaging in bilateral stimulation, often by moving their eyes back and forth. This bilateral stimulation can involve tracking the therapist's finger or other forms of sensory stimulation. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the core process of EMDR. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not involve the essential components of EMDR, which include eye movements or bilateral stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as EMDR is a specific therapeutic technique and not covered by selecting 'None of the above'.

3. Which term refers to a comprehensive set of thoughts or images of oneself?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The term 'Global self' specifically refers to a comprehensive set of thoughts or images about oneself. It encompasses a person's overall perception of themselves, including their beliefs, values, and self-image. 'Core self-concept' is more focused on the fundamental beliefs individuals hold about themselves, 'Personal identity' relates to the characteristics and qualities that distinguish a person from others, and 'Ideal self' represents the person an individual aspires to be rather than their current self-perception. Therefore, 'Global self' is the most appropriate term for the description provided in the question.

4. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients before surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications during surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is taking anticoagulants for the past year. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to be aware of this medication. While clients taking birth control pills (option A) may be more prone to developing blood clots, these issues typically arise after surgery. Clients who recently completed antibiotic therapy (option C) or have taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months (option D) are at lower risk compared to those taking anticoagulants (option B) during surgery.

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