NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. Using the illustrated technique, the healthcare provider is assessing for which finding in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
- A. Hyperresonance
- B. Tripod positioning
- C. Accessory muscle use
- D. Reduced chest expansion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The technique for palpation for chest expansion is shown in the illustrated technique. Reduced chest expansion would be noted on palpation of a patient's chest with COPD. Hyperresonance would be assessed through percussion, not palpation. Accessory muscle use and tripod positioning would be assessed by inspection, not palpation.
2. A patient with severe Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease is receiving discharge teaching. Which of these statements by the patient indicates a need for more teaching?
- A. ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.''
- B. ''I'm going to make sure to remain upright after meals and elevate my head when I sleep.''
- C. ''I won't be drinking tea or coffee or eating chocolate anymore.''
- D. ''I'm going to start trying to lose some weight.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.'' This statement indicates a need for more teaching because large meals increase the volume and pressure in the stomach, delaying gastric emptying, and worsening symptoms of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD). The recommended approach is to eat smaller, more frequent meals (4-6 small meals a day) to reduce acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate good understanding of GERD management by highlighting the importance of staying upright after meals, avoiding trigger foods like tea, coffee, and chocolate, and addressing weight management, which are all appropriate strategies to manage GERD symptoms.
3. A child is hospitalized because of persistent vomiting. The nurse should monitor the child closely for which problem?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Metabolic alkalosis
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario of persistent vomiting, the child is at risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrochloric acid. Vomiting leads to the loss of gastric acid, resulting in an imbalance that causes metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis is incorrect as it would occur in a child with diarrhea due to the loss of bicarbonate. While diarrhea can sometimes be associated with vomiting, in this case, the primary focus is on the effects of vomiting. Hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically associated with vomiting, making this choice less relevant to the situation described.
4. The nurse is caring for a newborn with a suspected diagnosis of imperforate anus. The nurse monitors the infant, knowing that which is a clinical manifestation associated with this disorder?
- A. Bile-stained fecal emesis
- B. The passage of currant jelly-like stools
- C. Failure to pass meconium stool in the first 24 hours after birth
- D. Sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Imperforate anus is the incomplete development or absence of the anus in its normal position in the perineum. Failure to pass meconium stool within the first 24 hours after birth is a key clinical manifestation associated with this disorder. This finding should prompt further assessment to confirm the suspected diagnosis. Other assessment findings in imperforate anus may include absence or stenosis of the anal rectal canal, presence of an anal membrane, and an external fistula to the perineum. Options A, B, and D describe findings typically noted in intussusception, a different condition characterized by bowel obstruction and telescoping of the intestines that can present with bile-stained fecal emesis, the passage of currant jelly-like stools, and a sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant.
5. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?
- A. The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit for observation and medication.
- B. The patient will be admitted to the day surgery unit for sclerotherapy.
- C. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled.
- D. The patient will be discharged home to follow-up with his cardiologist in 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture, which can be life-threatening. The standard treatment for a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is surgical intervention to prevent rupture. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to expect is that the patient will be admitted to the surgical unit, and resection will be scheduled. Observation and medication (Choice A) are not sufficient for a rapidly enlarging aneurysm, and sclerotherapy (Choice B) is not typically used for aortic aneurysms. Discharging the patient home (Choice D) would be inappropriate and dangerous given the risk of rupture.
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