NCLEX NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The nurse is assigned to care for a child who is scheduled for an appendectomy. Select the prescriptions that the nurse anticipates will be prescribed. Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Initiate an IV line.
- B. Maintain an NPO status.
- C. Administer a Fleet enema.
- D. Administer intravenous antibiotics.
Correct answer: Administer a Fleet enema.
Rationale: For a child scheduled for an appendectomy, the administration of a Fleet enema is not typically required. An IV line is often initiated for fluid and medication administration, maintaining NPO status is necessary to prevent aspiration during surgery, and administering intravenous antibiotics may be part of the preoperative regimen. Therefore, the correct choice that does not apply in this case is administering a Fleet enema.
2. The nurse assesses the chest of a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Increased tactile fremitus
- B. Dry, nonproductive cough
- C. Hyperresonance to percussion
- D. A grating sound on auscultation
Correct answer: Increased tactile fremitus
Rationale: Increased tactile fremitus over the area of pulmonary consolidation is expected with bacterial pneumonias, such as pneumococcal pneumonia. Dullness to percussion would be expected due to consolidation. Pneumococcal pneumonia typically presents with a loose, productive cough rather than a dry, nonproductive cough. Hyperresonance to percussion is not a typical finding in pneumonia and may suggest conditions like emphysema. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles and wheezes are typical in pneumonia, but a grating sound on auscultation is more representative of a pleural friction rub rather than pneumonia.
3. Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago?
- A. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa
- B. Crackles at bilateral lung bases
- C. Temperature 100.8°F (38.2°C)
- D. No bowel movement for 4 days
Correct answer: Temperature 100.8°F (38.2°C)
Rationale: The correct answer is the patient's temperature of 100.8°F (38.2°C). In a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago, a fever is a significant finding that should be promptly communicated to the health care provider. Post-transplant patients are at high risk of infections, and fever can often be the initial indicator of an underlying infectious process. The other findings listed in choices A, B, and D are important and should be addressed, but they do not take precedence over a potential infection post-liver transplant. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa may indicate dehydration, crackles at bilateral lung bases may suggest fluid overload or infection, and no bowel movement for 4 days could indicate a bowel obstruction or ileus. However, in the context of a recent liver transplant, an elevated temperature is the most concerning and requires immediate attention to rule out infection.
4. How does shock typically progress?
- A. Compensated to hypotensive shock in hours and hypotensive shock to cardiac arrest in minutes
- B. Compensated to hypotensive shock in minutes and hypotensive shock to cardiac arrest in hours
- C. Hypotensive to compensated shock in hours and compensated shock to cardiac arrest in minutes
- D. Hypotensive to compensated shock in minutes and compensated shock to cardiac arrest in hours
Correct answer: Compensated to hypotensive shock in hours and hypotensive shock to cardiac arrest in minutes
Rationale: Shock typically progresses from a compensated state to hypotensive shock over a period of hours. In the compensated phase, the body is trying to maintain perfusion. It is crucial to identify and intervene during this phase to prevent progression to hypotensive shock, where blood pressure drops significantly. If not promptly managed, hypotensive shock can rapidly deteriorate into cardiac arrest in minutes due to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the typical progression of shock stages as seen in clinical practice. Understanding the stages of shock and their timeframes is crucial for early recognition and appropriate intervention to prevent further deterioration.
5. Mrs. M has had diabetes for seven years. She has worked hard to control her blood glucose levels and watch her dietary intake. Her physician orders a hemoglobin A1C test. Which of the following best describes the action of this test?
- A. The test determines if the client is anemic and needs iron supplements
- B. The test determines if there is excess glucose building up in the urine
- C. The test determines the amount of hemoglobin reaching the liver to support gluconeogenesis
- D. The test determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose
Correct answer: The test determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose
Rationale: A hemoglobin A1C test, also known as a glycated hemoglobin test, determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose. Excess glucose in the bloodstream may cause it to attach to hemoglobin on red blood cells. Because the life of these cells is between 2 and 3 months, the hemoglobin A1C is an accurate measurement of a client's glucose during that time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A relates to anemia and iron supplements, which are not assessed by a hemoglobin A1C test. Choice B mentions excess glucose in the urine, which is typically assessed through a urine glucose test, not the hemoglobin A1C test. Choice C is incorrect as the test is not related to the amount of hemoglobin reaching the liver to support gluconeogenesis; instead, it specifically measures the amount of hemoglobin that is glycated or coated with glucose.
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