Nursing Elites

1. The nurse caring for Mrs. J is prepared to suction her endotracheal tube. Which of the following interventions will reduce hypoxia during this procedure?

• A. Hyperoxygenate Mrs. J for up to 60 seconds prior to starting
• B. Administer 15 mL of sterile fluid into the tube prior to suctioning
• C. Suction for no longer than 30 seconds at a time
• D. Wait 30 seconds after suctioning before attempting again

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before suctioning a client's endotracheal tube, it is essential to hyperoxygenate the client for approximately 30 to 60 seconds. Hyperoxygenation helps increase oxygen delivery to the tissues, reducing the risk of hypoxia during and after the suctioning procedure. Administering fluid into the tube before suctioning (Choice B) is unnecessary and can lead to complications. Suctioning for no longer than 30 seconds at a time (Choice C) is a general guideline but does not specifically address reducing hypoxia. Waiting 30 seconds after suctioning before attempting again (Choice D) may lead to inadequate oxygenation and potential hypoxia, making it less effective in preventing this complication compared to hyperoxygenation prior to suctioning.

2. An 85-year-old client is diagnosed with hypernatremia due to lack of fluid intake and dehydration. The nurse knows that symptoms of hypernatremia include:

• A. Lack of thirst
• B. Pale skin
• C. Hypertension
• D. Swollen tongue

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypernatremia among elderly clients can result from dehydration and insufficient fluid intake, leading to sodium levels above 145 mEq/L. Common symptoms of hypernatremia include mental status changes, a thick or swollen tongue, excessive thirst, and flushed skin. Choice A, 'Lack of thirst,' is incorrect as hypernatremia typically presents with excessive thirst. Choice B, 'Pale skin,' is not a typical symptom of hypernatremia. Choice C, 'Hypertension,' is not a direct symptom of hypernatremia and is more commonly associated with other conditions like hypertension itself.

3. In which part of the plan of care should a nurse record the item 'Encourage patient to attend one psychoeducational group daily'?

• A. Assessment
• B. Analysis
• C. Planning
• D. Implementation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Implementation.' In the nursing process, implementation involves carrying out the planned interventions to meet the patient's goals. Encouraging the patient to attend a psychoeducational group daily is an intervention aimed at building social skills. Assessment (choice A) is the phase where data about the patient's condition is collected. Analysis (choice B) involves interpreting the gathered data. Planning (choice C) is where the nurse decides on the interventions to address the patient's needs. Therefore, in this scenario, recording the item 'Encourage patient to attend one psychoeducational group daily' would be part of the implementation phase.

4. The patient in the emergency room has a history of alprazolam (Xanax) abuse and abruptly stopped taking Xanax about 24 hours ago. He presents with visible tremors, pacing, fear, impaired concentration, and memory. Which intervention takes priority?

• A. Have the patient lie down on a stretcher with bed rails raised
• B. Offer the patient a cup of water and a small amount of food
• C. Reassure the patient about his well-being
• D. Inform the physician about the patient's Xanax withdrawal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 1-4 day period after Xanax withdrawal is critical as it poses the highest risk of life-threatening seizures. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden cessation can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms. The patient's visible tremors, fear, pacing, and cognitive impairment indicate a state of heightened distress and potential seizure risk. Placing the patient on a stretcher with raised bed rails is essential for seizure precautions, ensuring safety and preventing injury during a potential seizure. Offering water and food, reassuring the patient, or informing the physician about Xanax withdrawal are not immediate priorities compared to managing the risk of seizures in this high-risk situation.

5. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

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