Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is:

• A. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery
• B. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator
• C. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow
• D. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is performed during a cardiac catheterization to improve coronary artery blood flow in a diseased artery. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery is typically done through procedures like aorto-coronary bypass graft (ACBG) rather than PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator (AICD) is a different procedure used for managing cardiac arrhythmias. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart refers to procedures like echocardiography or cardiac MRI, not PTCA.

2. A patient is found unconscious in their room with rhythmic jerking of all four extremities and heavy foaming at the mouth. The patient was on seizure precautions with bedrails up and padded. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Administer Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Turn the patient to his/her side
• C. Call the physician
• D. Suction the patient

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to turn the patient to his/her side. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. Administering Lorazepam (Ativan) without ensuring a clear airway could lead to further complications. Calling the physician is important, but immediate interventions to protect the airway take precedence. Suctioning the patient may be necessary but should not be the initial action; positioning for airway protection is the priority.

3. A client is undergoing radiation therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer. Following the radiation, the client develops xerostomia. Which of the following best describes this condition?

• A. Cracks in the corners of the mouth
• B. Peeling skin from the tongue and gums
• C. Increased dental caries
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Xerostomia, also known as dry mouth, is a common side effect of radiation therapy in the head and neck region. It occurs when the salivary glands are damaged during treatment, reducing saliva production and causing a dry sensation in the mouth. The correct answer is 'Dry mouth' (option D). Choice A, 'Cracks in the corners of the mouth,' describes angular cheilitis, a condition linked to nutritional deficiencies or candida infection. Choice B, 'Peeling skin from the tongue and gums,' is more indicative of conditions like oral thrush or mucositis. Choice C, 'Increased dental caries,' is a consequence of reduced saliva flow but does not specifically describe xerostomia.

4. The nurse is caring for a 73-year-old man with cirrhosis. Which data obtained by the nurse during the assessment will be of most concern?

• A. The patient complains of right upper-quadrant pain upon palpation.
• B. The patient's hands flap back and forth when the arms are extended.
• C. The patient has ascites and a 2-kg weight gain from the previous day.
• D. The patient's skin has multiple spider-shaped blood vessels on the abdomen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most concerning data obtained by the nurse is the patient's hands flapping back and forth when the arms are extended, indicating asterixis, which is associated with hepatic encephalopathy. This condition can progress to hepatic coma and requires immediate attention. The presence of spider angiomas and right upper-quadrant abdominal pain are common findings in cirrhosis and do not warrant urgent intervention. Although ascites and weight gain suggest the need for treatment, they are not as alarming as the neurologic manifestations seen in hepatic encephalopathy.

5. An emergency department nurse is performing an assessment on a child with a suspected diagnosis of intussusception. Which assessment question for the parents will elicit the most specific data related to this disorder?

• A. Does the child have any food allergies?
• B. What do the bowel movements look like?
• C. Has the child eaten any food in the last 24 hours?
• D. Can you describe the type of pain that the child is experiencing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is asking the parents to describe the type of pain the child is experiencing because a report of severe colicky abdominal pain in a healthy, thriving child between 3 and 17 months of age is the classic presentation of intussusception. Typical behavior includes screaming and drawing the knees up to the chest. This specific question helps in identifying the key symptom of intussusception. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects of a health history but are not specific to the diagnosis of intussusception. Food allergies, bowel movements, and recent food intake are relevant for a comprehensive assessment but do not directly relate to the specific symptoms of intussusception.

Similar Questions