NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. Which information about a 60-year-old patient with MS indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the prescribed dose of dalfampridine (Ampyra)?
- A. The patient has relapsing-remitting MS
- B. The patient walks a mile a day for exercise
- C. The patient complains of pain with neck flexion
- D. The patient has an increased serum creatinine level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has an increased serum creatinine level. Dalfampridine should not be given to patients with impaired renal function as it can worsen their condition. Options A, B, and C are unrelated to the administration of dalfampridine. The fact that the patient has relapsing-remitting MS, walks for exercise, or experiences neck pain does not directly impact the decision to administer dalfampridine. However, an increased serum creatinine level is a contraindication for this medication and requires consultation with the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of action.
2. Following surgery to correct cryptorchidism, what is the priority action that the nurse should include in the plan of care?
- A. Prevent tension on the suture.
- B. Monitor urine for glucose and acetone.
- C. Encourage oral fluids, and monitor intake and output.
- D. Encourage coughing and deep breathing every hour.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to prevent tension on the suture. After surgery for cryptorchidism, the testicle is held in position by an internal suture that should not be dislodged. Immobilization of the area for a week is crucial to prevent complications like bleeding and infection. Monitoring urine for glucose and acetone is unrelated to this surgery. While maintaining hydration is important, forcing fluids is not necessary. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing every hour may be a postoperative consideration, but it is not the priority for this specific surgery.
3. A client is being assessed for risks of a pressure ulcer by a healthcare professional. What is the best description of what may be found with an early pressure ulcer in an African American client?
- A. Skin has a purple/bluish color
- B. Capillary refill is 1 second
- C. Skin appears blanched at the pressure site
- D. Tenting appears when checking skin turgor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing for signs of developing pressure ulcers in a client with dark skin, traditional signs like blanching may not be evident. In individuals with darker skin tones, the skin of an early pressure ulcer may present with a purple or bluish hue. This discoloration can be a crucial indicator of compromised circulation and tissue damage. Capillary refill, blanching, and tenting are more commonly used in the assessment of skin integrity and hydration levels but may not be as reliable in individuals with darker skin tones, making the purple/bluish color a key finding in this context.
4. A client asks the nurse about including her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. Which of the following is an appropriate initial statement by the nurse?
- A. Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.
- B. Tell each child what he can do to help with the baby.
- C. Suggest that your husband spend more time with the boys.
- D. Ask the children what they would like to do for the newborn.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to guide the client on the initial steps in involving her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. The most appropriate response is to 'Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.' In an expanded family, parents should prioritize reassuring older children that they are loved and as important as the newborn. This response acknowledges the importance of ensuring the well-being and emotional adjustment of the older siblings during the transition period. Choices B, C, and D are less appropriate as they do not directly address the emotional needs and adjustment of the older children during this significant family change.
5. A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?
- A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
- B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
- C. Metallic taste
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia.' When a patient is on NPO status (nothing by mouth) and prescribed metformin, there is an increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the absence of oral intake. Metformin, as an anti-glycemic drug, can lower blood sugar levels, and without food intake, the risk of hypoglycemia is higher. Diarrhea and vomiting are common gastrointestinal side effects of metformin but are not the main concern in this scenario. Dizziness and drowsiness are potential side effects of some medications but are not typically associated with metformin. Metallic taste is a known side effect of metformin but is not the primary concern in this situation where hypoglycemia is more critical to monitor due to the patient's NPO status.
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