Nursing Elites

1. Which information about a 60-year-old patient with MS indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the prescribed dose of dalfampridine (Ampyra)?

• A. The patient has relapsing-remitting MS
• B. The patient walks a mile a day for exercise
• C. The patient complains of pain with neck flexion
• D. The patient has an increased serum creatinine level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has an increased serum creatinine level. Dalfampridine should not be given to patients with impaired renal function as it can worsen their condition. Options A, B, and C are unrelated to the administration of dalfampridine. The fact that the patient has relapsing-remitting MS, walks for exercise, or experiences neck pain does not directly impact the decision to administer dalfampridine. However, an increased serum creatinine level is a contraindication for this medication and requires consultation with the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of action.

2. When taking the blood pressure (BP) on the right arm of a patient with severe acute pancreatitis, the nurse notices carpal spasms of the patient's right hand. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Ask the patient about any arm pain.
• B. Retake the patient's blood pressure.
• C. Check the calcium level in the chart.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse observed carpal spasms in the patient's right hand, indicating a positive Trousseau's sign, which is associated with hypocalcemia. Patients with acute pancreatitis are at risk for hypocalcemia, hence the nurse should promptly check the calcium level in the chart to assess the patient's condition. Notifying the healthcare provider comes after confirming the calcium level. There is no indication to ask about arm pain or to retake the blood pressure, as the primary concern is addressing the potential hypocalcemia.

3. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent remarks, 'We just don't know how he caught the disease!' The nurse's response is based on an understanding that

• A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules
• B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps
• C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections
• D. It is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is generally considered an immune-complex disease in response to a previous B-hemolytic streptococcal infection, typically occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is not an infectious disease but a noninfectious renal condition. Therefore, the parent's belief that the child 'caught' the disease is inaccurate. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a direct streptococcal infection involving the kidney tubules but an immune response to a prior streptococcal infection. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections but with a previous streptococcal infection.

4. The nurse is reviewing the record of a child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse should expect to note which finding documented in the child's record?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Weight gain
• C. Hypotension
• D. Grossly bloody urine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, a key finding documented in the child's record is weight gain due to massive edema. While urine may appear dark, foamy, and frothy, grossly bloody urine is not expected as only microscopic hematuria is present. Additionally, urine output is decreased, and hypertension is likely to be present. Therefore, the correct answer is weight gain as it aligns with the characteristic presentation of nephrotic syndrome.

5. The nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered rhonchi after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assist the patient to sit upright in a chair.
• B. Splint the patient's chest during coughing.
• C. Medicate the patient with prescribed morphine.
• D. Observe the patient use the incentive spirometer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to medicate the patient with prescribed morphine. A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain, which can worsen with deep breathing and coughing. The priority is to address the incisional pain to facilitate effective coughing and deep breathing, which are essential for clearing the airways and preventing complications. Assisting the patient to sit upright, splinting the patient's chest during coughing, and observing the patient using the incentive spirometer are all appropriate interventions to improve airway clearance, but they should be implemented after addressing the incisional pain with medication.

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