Nursing Elites

1. James returns home from school angry and upset because his teacher gave him a low grade on an assignment. After returning home from school, he kicks the dog. This coping mechanism is known as:

• A. denial
• B. suppression
• C. displacement
• D. fantasy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'displacement.' Displacement is a defense mechanism where emotions or impulses are transferred from their original source to a substitute target. In this scenario, James is displacing his anger from his teacher onto the dog. Choice A, 'denial,' involves refusing to acknowledge an unpleasant reality. Choice B, 'suppression,' is the conscious effort to push unwanted thoughts out of awareness. Choice D, 'fantasy,' refers to imagining scenarios that fulfill one's desires but are not based in reality.

2. Lidocaine is a medication frequently ordered for the client experiencing

• A. Atrial tachycardia
• B. Ventricular tachycardia
• C. Heart block
• D. Ventricular bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lidocaine is used to treat ventricular tachycardia. This medication slowly exerts an antiarrhythmic effect by increasing the electrical stimulation threshold of the ventricles without depressing the force of ventricular contractions. It is not used for atrial arrhythmias; thus, answer A is incorrect. Answers C and D are incorrect because lidocaine does not slow the heart rate, so it is not used for heart block or bradycardia.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

4. While the client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which lab test should be evaluated?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Creatinine
• C. Blood glucose
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial as TPN solutions contain high amounts of glucose. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Evaluating hemoglobin (choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Creatinine (choice B) is more relevant for assessing kidney function. White blood cell count (choice D) is important for evaluating immune function and infection, but not specifically tied to TPN administration.

5. The client with cirrhosis of the liver is receiving Lactulose. The nurse is aware that the rationale for the order for Lactulose is:

• A. To lower the blood glucose level
• B. To lower the uric acid level
• C. To lower the ammonia level
• D. To lower the creatinine level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lactulose is administered to the client with cirrhosis to lower ammonia levels, as it works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for elimination in the stool. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Lactulose does not have an effect on blood glucose, uric acid, or creatinine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower the ammonia level.

Similar Questions