NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A 7-year-old child is seen in a clinic, and the pediatrician documents a diagnosis of nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis. What information should the nurse provide to the parents?
- A. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis does not respond to treatment.
- B. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is caused by a psychiatric problem.
- C. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis requires surgical intervention to improve the problem.
- D. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is usually outgrown without therapeutic intervention.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is common in children and is characterized by a child who has never been dry at night for extended periods. Most children eventually outgrow bedwetting without therapeutic intervention. This condition is due to the child being unable to sense a full bladder and not awakening to void, often related to delayed maturation of the central nervous system. It is important for parents to understand that nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is not caused by a psychiatric problem, does not typically require surgical intervention, and usually resolves on its own over time.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's chart and notices that the patient suffers from Lyme disease. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?
- A. Borrelia burgdorferi
- B. Streptococcus pyogenes
- C. Bacillus anthracis
- D. Enterococcus faecalis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lyme disease, the most common vector-borne disease in the United States, is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with strep throat and other infections, not Lyme disease. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, a separate infectious disease. Enterococcus faecalis is more commonly linked to urinary tract infections and other healthcare-associated infections, not Lyme disease.
3. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Calcium
- B. Bilirubin
- C. Amylase
- D. Potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated. Monitoring amylase levels helps assess the effectiveness of therapy in managing the condition. Elevated amylase is a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation. Calcium (Choice A) levels may be affected in pancreatitis, but they are not the primary indicator for evaluating therapy effectiveness. Bilirubin (Choice B) and Potassium (Choice D) levels may also be altered in pancreatitis, but they are not specific markers for monitoring therapy response in acute pancreatitis.
4. A 1-year-old child is diagnosed with intussusception, and the mother of the child asks the student nurse to describe the disorder. Which statement by the student nurse indicates correct understanding of this disorder?
- A. It is an acute bowel obstruction.
- B. It is a condition that causes an acute inflammatory process in the bowel.
- C. It is a condition in which a distal segment of the bowel prolapses into a proximal segment of the bowel.
- D. It is a condition in which a proximal segment of the bowel prolapses into a distal segment of the bowel.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Intussusception is a condition in which a proximal segment of the bowel telescopes or prolapses into a distal segment of the bowel. This leads to bowel obstruction and potential ischemia. It is not an acute bowel obstruction, as the obstruction is caused by the telescoping of bowel segments rather than a blockage in the bowel lumen. Intussusception is not primarily an inflammatory process; instead, it is a mechanical issue involving bowel invagination. Choice A is incorrect as it does not accurately describe the pathophysiology of intussusception. Choice C is incorrect because it presents the opposite scenario of what happens in intussusception.
5. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?
- A. 60 microdrops/minute
- B. 20 microdrops/minute
- C. 30 microdrops/minute
- D. 40 microdrops/minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
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