Nursing Elites

1. Why should a 30-year-old Caucasian woman who works the night shift take Vitamin D supplements?

• A. It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia.
• B. It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.
• C. It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation.
• D. Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.' Vitamin D plays a crucial role in aiding the absorption of calcium from the intestines into the bloodstream, which is essential for bone health and formation. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically address the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin D does not stimulate skin cells to produce calcium; rather, it helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Choice D is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for Vitamin D supplementation; the need for supplementation is based on individual health status and risk factors.

2. A patient with newly diagnosed lung cancer tells the nurse, 'I don't think I'm going to live to see my next birthday.' Which response by the nurse is best?

• A. Would you like to talk to the hospital chaplain about your feelings?
• B. Can you tell me what it is that makes you think you will die so soon?
• C. Are you afraid that the treatment for your cancer will not be effective?
• D. Do you think that taking an antidepressant medication would be helpful?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's initial response should be to collect more assessment data about the patient's statement. The answer beginning 'Can you tell me what it is' is the most open-ended question and will offer the best opportunity for obtaining more data. The answer beginning 'Are you afraid' implies that the patient thinks that the cancer will be immediately fatal, although the patient's statement may not be related to the cancer diagnosis. The remaining two answers offer interventions that may be helpful to the patient, but more assessment is needed to determine whether these interventions are appropriate.

3. While auscultating a patient's lungs, the nurse hears low-pitched, bubbling sounds during inhalation in the lower third of both lungs. How should the nurse document this finding?

• A. Inspiratory crackles at the bases
• B. Expiratory wheezes in both lungs
• C. Abnormal lung sounds in the apices of both lungs
• D. Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Inspiratory crackles at the bases.' Crackles are low-pitched, bubbling sounds typically heard during inspiration, which aligns with the nurse's finding. Expiratory wheezes are high-pitched sounds and are not consistent with the described auscultation findings. The lower third of both lungs refers to the bases, not the apices, so option C is incorrect. Pleural friction rubs are grating sounds heard during both inspiration and expiration, unlike the described finding of only hearing the sounds during inhalation in the lower third of both lungs.

4. When administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30-day-old infant, which of the following target areas is the most appropriate?

• A. Gluteus maximus
• B. Gluteus minimus
• C. Vastus lateralis
• D. Vastus medialis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering medications to infants, it is common to use the vastus lateralis muscle in the thigh for injections. The preferred site is the junction of the upper and middle thirds of the vastus lateralis muscle. This area provides a good muscle mass for the injection and minimizes the risk of hitting nerves or blood vessels. The gluteus maximus and gluteus minimus are not typically used for infant injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The vastus medialis is not as commonly used as the vastus lateralis for infant injections.

5. A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?

• A. Start giving the patient discharge teaching on the day of discharge
• B. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching
• C. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge
• D. Arrange for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypoxemia interferes with the patient's ability to learn and retain information, so having the patient's caregiver present will increase the likelihood that discharge instructions will be followed. Having the patient repeat the instructions will indicate that the information is understood at the time, but it does not guarantee retention of the information. Giving discharge instructions just before discharge is not ideal as the patient is likely to be distracted and anxious at that time. Teaching the patient about discharge on the day of admission is not recommended because the patient may be more hypoxemic and anxious than usual, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain the information effectively. Therefore, arranging for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching session is the best option to ensure proper compliance and understanding of the discharge instructions.

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