Nursing Elites

1. Why should a 30-year-old Caucasian woman who works the night shift take Vitamin D supplements?

• A. It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia.
• B. It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.
• C. It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation.
• D. Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.' Vitamin D plays a crucial role in aiding the absorption of calcium from the intestines into the bloodstream, which is essential for bone health and formation. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically address the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin D does not stimulate skin cells to produce calcium; rather, it helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Choice D is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for Vitamin D supplementation; the need for supplementation is based on individual health status and risk factors.

2. When is cleft palate repair usually performed in children?

• A. A cleft palate cannot be repaired in children.
• B. Repair is usually performed by age 8 weeks.
• C. Repair is usually performed by 2 months of age.
• D. Repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cleft palate repair timing is individualized based on the severity of the deformity and the child's size. Typically, cleft palate repair is performed between 6 months and 2 years of age. This age range allows for optimal outcomes and is often done before 12 months to promote normal speech development. Early closure of the cleft palate helps to facilitate speech development. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a cleft palate can be repaired in children, and repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years of age, not at 8 weeks or 2 months.

3. A patient is getting discharged from a skilled nursing facility (SNF). The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about his ability to breathe easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?

• A. Deep breathing techniques to increase oxygen levels.
• B. Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.
• C. Cough following bronchodilator utilization.
• D. Decrease CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the patient to cough following bronchodilator utilization. In COPD and PVD patients, bronchodilators help to open up the airways, making coughing more effective in clearing secretions from the lungs. This instruction can aid in improving the patient's ability to breathe by enhancing airway clearance. Deep breathing techniques (Choice A) may help increase oxygen levels but may not directly address the patient's immediate concern of breathing difficulty. Coughing regularly and deeply (Choice B) can be beneficial, but the timing following bronchodilator use is more crucial to maximize its effectiveness. Decreasing CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals (Choice D) does not directly address the patient's concern about breathing ease or the role of bronchodilators in improving cough effectiveness.

4. A nurse is educating a patient about bimatoprost (Lumigan) eyedrops for the treatment of Glaucoma. Which of the following indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of the expected outcomes following treatment?

• A. "I should be experiencing less blurriness in my central field of vision"
• B. "This medication won't help my vision at all, but will keep it from getting worse."
• C. "My peripheral vision should be increasing back to its normal state, but will take a few weeks to do so."
• D. "This medication will help my eye restor intraocular fluid and increase intraocular pressure"

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Glaucoma cannot be cured, just treated. Treatment revolves around preventing further deterioration.

5. A patient is suspected to have sustained a spinal cord injury. What best describes the overarching principles used to guide the care for this type of condition?

• A. Immobilize the cervical area to prevent further injury
• B. Monitor the patient's level of consciousness to prevent neurologic deterioration
• C. Help the patient with activities of daily living and provide emotional and physical support to help them adjust to their injury
• D. Facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing. In the acute phase of a spinal cord injury, ensuring proper tissue perfusion to the spinal cord is crucial to prevent further damage. Maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in guiding the overall care for a patient with a spinal cord injury. Choices A, B, and C, while important in certain aspects of care, are not the overarching principles that guide the immediate management of a suspected spinal cord injury.

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