NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Why should a 30-year-old Caucasian woman who works the night shift take Vitamin D supplements?
- A. It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia.
- B. It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.
- C. It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation.
- D. Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.' Vitamin D plays a crucial role in aiding the absorption of calcium from the intestines into the bloodstream, which is essential for bone health and formation. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically address the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin D does not stimulate skin cells to produce calcium; rather, it helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Choice D is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for Vitamin D supplementation; the need for supplementation is based on individual health status and risk factors.
2. After a bronchoscopy, what is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a chronic cough?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 80 to 90 degrees.
- B. Keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns.
- C. Place the patient on bed rest for at least 4 hours after bronchoscopy.
- D. Notify the health care provider about blood-tinged mucus.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention is to keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns after a bronchoscopy. This is important because a local anesthetic is used during the procedure to suppress the gag and cough reflexes. Monitoring the return of these reflexes helps prevent the risk of aspiration and ensures the patient can safely resume oral intake. While blood-tinged mucus can occur after bronchoscopy, it is a common occurrence and not a cause for immediate concern. Placing the patient on bed rest for an extended period is unnecessary, and elevating the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position is not specifically required post-bronchoscopy.
3. The laboratory has just called with the arterial blood gas (ABG) results on four patients. Which result is most important for the nurse to report immediately to the health care provider?
- A. pH 7.34, PaO2 82 mm Hg, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, and O2 sat 97%
- B. pH 7.35, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, and O2 sat 95%
- C. pH 7.46, PaO2 90 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and O2 sat 98%
- D. pH 7.31, PaO2 91 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and O2 sat 96%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: pH 7.31, PaO2 91 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and O2 sat 96%. These ABG results indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis, a critical condition that requires immediate attention. In respiratory acidosis, there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to a decrease in pH. The other options present normal or near-normal ABG values, indicating adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Therefore, these values would not be as urgent to report compared to the patient with respiratory acidosis in option D.
4. A patient is getting discharged from a skilled nursing facility (SNF). The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about his ability to breathe easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?
- A. Deep breathing techniques to increase oxygen levels.
- B. Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.
- C. Cough following bronchodilator utilization.
- D. Decrease CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the patient to cough following bronchodilator utilization. In COPD and PVD patients, bronchodilators help to open up the airways, making coughing more effective in clearing secretions from the lungs. This instruction can aid in improving the patient's ability to breathe by enhancing airway clearance. Deep breathing techniques (Choice A) may help increase oxygen levels but may not directly address the patient's immediate concern of breathing difficulty. Coughing regularly and deeply (Choice B) can be beneficial, but the timing following bronchodilator use is more crucial to maximize its effectiveness. Decreasing CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals (Choice D) does not directly address the patient's concern about breathing ease or the role of bronchodilators in improving cough effectiveness.
5. The healthcare provider is managing a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider?
- A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour.
- B. Periodic crying and irritability.
- C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier.
- D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The critical finding that should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding raises concerns about possible hyperkalemia, which can result from continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. The management of acute hyperkalemia involves interventions such as administering calcium to protect the heart, shifting potassium into cells, and enhancing potassium elimination from the body. The other choices do not indicate an urgent issue that requires immediate attention. Three episodes of vomiting in 1 hour can be concerning but may not be as immediately critical as the risk of hyperkalemia. Periodic crying and irritability are common in infants and may not indicate a severe complication. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier is a normal behavior in infants and does not signal a medical emergency.
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