Nursing Elites

1. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent's remark: "We just don't know how he caught the disease!"? The nurse's response is based on an understanding that:

• A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules.
• B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps.
• C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections.
• D. It is not "caught"? but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.

2. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?

• A. The patient reports no chest pain.
• B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
• C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
• D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.

3. The nurse is performing tuberculosis (TB) skin tests in a clinic that has many patients who have immigrated to the United States. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask before the skin test?

• A. Is there any family history of TB?
• B. How long have you lived in the United States?
• C. Do you take any over-the-counter (OTC) medications?
• D. Have you received the bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine for TB?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about whether the patient has received the bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine for TB before performing the skin test. Patients who have received the BCG vaccine can have a positive Mantoux test, leading to the need for alternative screening methods, such as a chest x-ray, to determine TB infection. While family history of TB and length of time in the United States are relevant factors, they do not directly impact the decision to perform the TB skin test. Asking about over-the-counter medications, unless relevant to TB treatment, is not as critical as assessing BCG vaccination status.

4. Which assessment finding would the nurse need to report most quickly to the health care provider regarding a patient with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Hypotonic bowel sounds
• C. Abdominal tenderness and guarding
• D. Muscle twitching and finger numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is muscle twitching and finger numbness. These symptoms indicate hypocalcemia, which can lead to tetany if not promptly addressed with calcium gluconate administration. Nausea and vomiting, hypotonic bowel sounds, and abdominal tenderness and guarding are important findings in acute pancreatitis but do not require the same urgent intervention as hypocalcemia to prevent potential severe complications.

5. A client with Multiple Sclerosis reports a constant, burning, tingling pain in the shoulders. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication for this type of pain?

• A. alprazolam (Xanax)
• B. Corticosteroid injection
• C. gabapentin (Neurontin)
• D. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For neuropathic pain associated with conditions like Multiple Sclerosis, medications like gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, are commonly used. Gabapentin helps in managing nerve pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not primarily indicated for neuropathic pain. Corticosteroid injections are more suitable for inflammatory conditions like arthritis, not for neuropathic pain. Hydrocodone/acetaminophen is an opioid combination used for moderate to severe pain, but it is not the first-line choice for neuropathic pain.

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