Nursing Elites

1. A 55-year-old patient admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice and nausea has abnormal liver function studies, but serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Is there any history of IV drug use?
• B. Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?
• C. Are you taking corticosteroids for any reason?
• D. Have you recently traveled to a foreign country?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask in this scenario is whether the patient uses any over-the-counter drugs. The patient's symptoms, negative serologic testing for viral hepatitis, and sudden onset of symptoms point towards toxic hepatitis, which can be triggered by commonly used over-the-counter medications like acetaminophen (Tylenol). Asking about IV drug use is relevant for viral hepatitis, not toxic hepatitis. Inquiring about recent travel to a foreign country is more pertinent to potential exposure to infectious agents causing viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use is not typically associated with the symptoms described in the case.

2. The child with hemolytic-uremic syndrome is anuric and will undergo peritoneal dialysis. Which measure should the nurse implement?

• A. Restrict fluids as prescribed.
• B. Care for the arteriovenous fistula.
• C. Encourage foods high in potassium.
• D. Administer analgesics as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hemolytic-uremic syndrome, often associated with bacterial toxins and viruses, acute kidney injury occurs in children, leading to symptoms like anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal injury, and CNS symptoms. For an anuric child with hemolytic-uremic syndrome undergoing peritoneal dialysis, fluid restriction is vital to prevent fluid overload. Pain management is not directly related to hemolytic-uremic syndrome. Foods high in potassium should be limited, not encouraged, due to impaired kidney function. Peritoneal dialysis does not involve an arteriovenous fistula, which is specific to hemodialysis.

3. During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute, and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to:

• A. Increase fluids that are high in protein
• B. Restrict fluids
• C. Force fluids and reassess blood pressure
• D. Limit fluids to non-caffeine beverages

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with cardiomyopathy is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension, which is characterized by a significant drop in systolic blood pressure (>15 mm Hg) and an increase in heart rate (>15%), along with dizziness. These symptoms suggest volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency. The appropriate nursing intervention in this case is to force fluids and reassess blood pressure to address the underlying issue of volume depletion and improve hemodynamic stability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluids high in protein, restricting fluids, or limiting fluids to non-caffeine beverages are not appropriate actions for a client experiencing orthostatic hypotension and signs of volume depletion.

4. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse assesses the patient for mental status changes. What is the rationale for this intervention?

• A. Decreased cardiac output can cause hypoxia to the brain
• B. Mental status changes may be a side effect of the patient's medication
• C. Mitral regurgitation is a complication associated with some neurological disorders
• D. The patient may be confused about his diagnosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output, assessing for mental status changes is crucial. Decreased cardiac output can lead to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of vital organs, including the brain, resulting in hypoxia. This hypoxia can manifest as mental status changes such as confusion, restlessness, or lethargy. Therefore, monitoring mental status helps in identifying potential hypoxic states and guiding appropriate interventions. The other options are incorrect as they do not directly correlate decreased cardiac output with potential hypoxia-induced mental status changes.

5. A patient's nursing diagnosis is Insomnia. The desired outcome is: "Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31."? On November 1, a review of the sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Continue the current plan without changes.
• B. Remove this nursing diagnosis from the plan of care.
• C. Write a new nursing diagnosis that better reflects the problem.
• D. Revise the target date for outcome attainment and examine interventions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to revise the target date for outcome attainment and reevaluate interventions. The initial desired outcome was for the patient to sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31. Since the patient is currently sleeping an average of 4 hours nightly and taking a 2-hour afternoon nap, the goal has not been achieved. By extending the time frame for attaining the outcome, the patient may have more time to progress towards the desired sleep duration. Additionally, examining interventions is crucial to identify any changes or adjustments that may be necessary to help the patient achieve the desired outcome. Continuing the current plan without changes is not appropriate as the goal has not been met. Removing the nursing diagnosis from the plan of care should only be considered when the problem is resolved. Writing a new nursing diagnosis is not needed as the current diagnosis of Insomnia still accurately reflects the patient's condition.

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