NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient is found unconscious in their room with rhythmic jerking of all four extremities and heavy foaming at the mouth. The patient was on seizure precautions with bedrails up and padded. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Turn the patient to his/her side
- C. Call the physician
- D. Suction the patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to turn the patient to his/her side. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. Administering Lorazepam (Ativan) without ensuring a clear airway could lead to further complications. Calling the physician is important, but immediate interventions to protect the airway take precedence. Suctioning the patient may be necessary but should not be the initial action; positioning for airway protection is the priority.
2. A client has just been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform to prevent transmission to others?
- A. Begin drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis
- B. Place the client in a positive-pressure room
- C. Initiate standard precautions
- D. Place the client in a negative-pressure room
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client diagnosed with active tuberculosis should be placed in isolation in a negative-pressure room to prevent transmission of infection to others. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room ensures that air is exhausted to the outside and received from surrounding areas, preventing tuberculin particles from traveling through the ventilation system and infecting others. Initiating standard precautions, as mentioned in choice C, is essential for infection control but is not specific to preventing transmission in the case of tuberculosis. Beginning drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis, as in choice A, is crucial for the treatment of tuberculosis but does not directly address preventing transmission. Placing the client in a positive-pressure room, as in choice B, is incorrect as positive-pressure rooms are used for clients with compromised immune systems to prevent outside pathogens from entering the room, which is not suitable for a client with active tuberculosis.
3. The clinic nurse is assessing jaundice in a child with hepatitis. Which anatomical area would provide the best data regarding the presence of jaundice?
- A. The nail beds.
- B. The skin in the sacral area.
- C. The skin in the abdominal area.
- D. The membranes in the ear canal.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Jaundice, if present, can be best assessed in areas such as the sclera, nail beds, and mucous membranes due to the yellowing of these tissues. The nail beds specifically provide a good indication of jaundice. The skin in the sacral area (Option B) is not typically the best area for assessing jaundice as it is less visible and not as reliable as the nail beds. The skin in the abdominal area (Option C) may show generalized jaundice, but the nail beds are more specific for detecting early signs. Lastly, assessing the membranes in the ear canal (Option D) is not a standard method for evaluating jaundice; the sclera and nail beds are more commonly used for this purpose.
4. A patient with a cast on the right leg is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following assessment findings would be most concerning for the nurse?
- A. The capillary refill time is 2 seconds
- B. The patient complains of itching and discomfort
- C. The cast has a foul-smelling odor
- D. The patient is on antibiotics
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A foul-smelling odor emanating from the cast is a concerning finding as it indicates the possibility of infection or the presence of a pressure ulcer. These conditions can lead to serious complications if not promptly addressed. It is crucial for the nurse to investigate further and take appropriate actions to prevent potential harm to the patient. The other options do not directly indicate a risk of infection or complications associated with the cast. Itching and discomfort are common complaints due to wearing a cast, and the patient being on antibiotics may be part of their treatment plan for an unrelated condition. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds is within the normal range and would not be a cause for immediate concern in this scenario.
5. Why should a 30-year-old Caucasian woman who works the night shift take Vitamin D supplements?
- A. It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia.
- B. It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.
- C. It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation.
- D. Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.' Vitamin D plays a crucial role in aiding the absorption of calcium from the intestines into the bloodstream, which is essential for bone health and formation. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically address the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin D does not stimulate skin cells to produce calcium; rather, it helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Choice D is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for Vitamin D supplementation; the need for supplementation is based on individual health status and risk factors.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access