NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient is found unconscious in their room with rhythmic jerking of all four extremities and heavy foaming at the mouth. The patient was on seizure precautions with bedrails up and padded. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Turn the patient to his/her side
- C. Call the physician
- D. Suction the patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to turn the patient to his/her side. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. Administering Lorazepam (Ativan) without ensuring a clear airway could lead to further complications. Calling the physician is important, but immediate interventions to protect the airway take precedence. Suctioning the patient may be necessary but should not be the initial action; positioning for airway protection is the priority.
2. To palpate the liver during a head-to-toe physical assessment, the nurse should
- A. put pressure on the biopsy site using a sandbag
- B. elevate the head of the bed to facilitate breathing
- C. place the patient on the right side with the bed flat
- D. check the patient's post-biopsy coagulation studies
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To palpate the liver effectively during a head-to-toe physical assessment, the patient should be positioned on the right side with the bed flat. This position helps to splint the biopsy site and allows for proper palpation of the liver. Elevating the head of the bed has no direct relevance to palpating the liver. Checking coagulation studies is done before the biopsy and is unrelated to palpation. Putting pressure on the biopsy site using a sandbag is not an appropriate way to facilitate liver palpation as it does not provide the necessary support and stabilization needed for the procedure.
3. A patient with Glaucoma is verbalizing his daily medication routine to the nurse. He states he has two different eye drop medications, both every twelve hours. He washes his hands, instills the drops, closes his eyes gently, and presses his finger to the corner of his eye nearest his nose. After waiting 1 minute with his eyes closed, he instills the other medication in the same way. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. ''You should wait more than 1 minute between different medications.''
- B. ''Your routine is very good! Can you demonstrate it for me?''
- C. ''It is actually not the best practice to close your eyes after instilling eye drops.''
- D. ''You should actually be pressing your finger in the other corner of the eye.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is recommended to wait 10-15 minutes between different eye drop medications to give them time to absorb and avoid one medication washing another one out. Choice A is the correct response as the patient should wait more than 1 minute between administering different eye drop medications. Choice B is incorrect as the routine described by the patient needs improvement. Choice C is inaccurate as closing the eyes after instilling eye drops is a best practice to ensure proper absorption. Choice D is incorrect as pressing the finger to the corner of the eye nearest the nose is the correct technique.
4. A patient with severe Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease is receiving discharge teaching. Which of these statements by the patient indicates a need for more teaching?
- A. ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.''
- B. ''I'm going to make sure to remain upright after meals and elevate my head when I sleep.''
- C. ''I won't be drinking tea or coffee or eating chocolate anymore.''
- D. ''I'm going to start trying to lose some weight.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.'' This statement indicates a need for more teaching because large meals increase the volume and pressure in the stomach, delaying gastric emptying, and worsening symptoms of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD). The recommended approach is to eat smaller, more frequent meals (4-6 small meals a day) to reduce acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate good understanding of GERD management by highlighting the importance of staying upright after meals, avoiding trigger foods like tea, coffee, and chocolate, and addressing weight management, which are all appropriate strategies to manage GERD symptoms.
5. What is the likely cause of pericarditis in a young patient?
- A. Heart failure
- B. Acute MI
- C. Hypertension
- D. Infectious processes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In younger patients, pericarditis is typically caused by an infection commonly triggered by viruses like the Coxsackie virus, streptococcus, staphylococcus, or Haemophilus influenzae. Infectious processes are the leading cause of pericarditis in younger individuals. Heart failure, Acute MI, and Hypertension are not common causes of pericarditis in young patients. In older adults, acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a more common cause of pericarditis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$1/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access