NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient is found unconscious in their room with rhythmic jerking of all four extremities and heavy foaming at the mouth. The patient was on seizure precautions with bedrails up and padded. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Turn the patient to his/her side
- C. Call the physician
- D. Suction the patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to turn the patient to his/her side. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. Administering Lorazepam (Ativan) without ensuring a clear airway could lead to further complications. Calling the physician is important, but immediate interventions to protect the airway take precedence. Suctioning the patient may be necessary but should not be the initial action; positioning for airway protection is the priority.
2. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?
- A. Blood sugar check
- B. CT scan
- C. Blood cultures
- D. Arterial blood gases
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.
3. When administering a-interferon and ribavirin (Rebetol) to a patient with chronic hepatitis C, the nurse should monitor for which complication?
- A. Leukopenia.
- B. Hypokalemia.
- C. Polycythemia.
- D. Hypoglycemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering a-interferon and ribavirin (Rebetol) for chronic hepatitis C, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia. This combination therapy is known to cause leukopenia, not polycythemia or hypoglycemia. Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance that can occur with these medications, making it the correct answer to monitor for in this case.
4. A mother brings her 26-month-old to the well-child clinic. She expresses frustration and anger due to her child's constant saying 'no' and refusal to follow her directions. The nurse explains this is normal for his age, as negativism is attempting to meet which developmental need?
- A. Trust
- B. Initiative
- C. Independence
- D. Self-esteem
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Erikson's theory of development, toddlers struggle to assert independence. They often use the word 'no' even when they mean yes. This stage is called autonomy versus shame and doubt. The child's behavior of saying 'no' and resisting directions reflects the developmental need for independence, not trust (option A), initiative (option B), or self-esteem (option D). Trust is typically associated with early infancy, initiative with preschool age, and self-esteem with later childhood and adolescence.
5. A patient with Meningitis is being treated with Vancomycin intravenously 3 times per day. The nurse notes that the urine output during the last 8 hours was 200mL. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Check the patient's last BUN levels
- B. Ask the patient to increase their fluid intake
- C. Ask the physician to order a diuretic
- D. Notify the physician of this finding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Vancomycin is a nephrotoxic drug and can cause impaired renal perfusion, which would lead to decreased urine output. This is a serious adverse effect that should be promptly reported to the physician. Checking the patient's last BUN levels (Choice A) may provide additional information but does not address the urgency of the situation. Asking the patient to increase fluid intake (Choice B) may not be appropriate if the cause is related to Vancomycin toxicity. Ordering a diuretic (Choice C) without physician evaluation can exacerbate the issue, making notifying the physician (Choice D) the most critical action to take.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access