Nursing Elites

1. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse assesses the patient for mental status changes. What is the rationale for this intervention?

• A. Decreased cardiac output can cause hypoxia to the brain
• B. Mental status changes may be a side effect of the patient's medication
• C. Mitral regurgitation is a complication associated with some neurological disorders
• D. The patient may be confused about his diagnosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output, assessing for mental status changes is crucial. Decreased cardiac output can lead to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of vital organs, including the brain, resulting in hypoxia. This hypoxia can manifest as mental status changes such as confusion, restlessness, or lethargy. Therefore, monitoring mental status helps in identifying potential hypoxic states and guiding appropriate interventions. The other options are incorrect as they do not directly correlate decreased cardiac output with potential hypoxia-induced mental status changes.

2. Why should a 30-year-old Caucasian woman who works the night shift take Vitamin D supplements?

• A. It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia.
• B. It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.
• C. It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation.
• D. Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.' Vitamin D plays a crucial role in aiding the absorption of calcium from the intestines into the bloodstream, which is essential for bone health and formation. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically address the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin D does not stimulate skin cells to produce calcium; rather, it helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Choice D is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for Vitamin D supplementation; the need for supplementation is based on individual health status and risk factors.

3. When caring for a patient hospitalized with active tuberculosis (TB), the nurse observes a student nurse who is assigned to take care of the patient. Which action, if performed by the student nurse, would require an intervention by the nurse?

• A. The patient is offered a tissue from the box at the bedside.
• B. A surgical face mask is applied before visiting the patient.
• C. A snack is brought to the patient from the unit refrigerator.
• D. Hand washing is performed before entering the patient's room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a patient with active tuberculosis (TB), it is crucial to use a high-efficiency particulate-absorbing (HEPA) mask instead of a standard surgical mask when entering the patient's room, as a HEPA mask can filter out 100% of small airborne particles, reducing the risk of transmission. Therefore, if the student nurse applies only a surgical face mask before visiting the patient, this action would require intervention by the nurse to ensure the appropriate protective equipment is used. Hand washing before entering the patient's room is essential to prevent the spread of infection and is a correct action. Bringing a snack to the patient from the unit refrigerator is appropriate and helps address potential issues with anorexia and weight loss in patients with TB. While hand washing after handling a tissue used by the patient is necessary, no special precautions are required when offering the patient an unused tissue.

4. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to the mother of a child who had a cleft palate repair. Which statement should the nurse make to the mother?

• A. You should use an orthodontic nipple on the child's bottle.
• B. You need to use a plastic spoon to feed the child.
• C. You can allow the child to use a pacifier but only for 30 minutes at a time.
• D. You need to monitor the child's temperature for signs of infection using an oral thermometer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a cleft palate repair, it is crucial to use an orthodontic nipple on the child's bottle to feed them appropriately. The mother should be instructed to give the child baby food or baby food mixed with water. It is important to avoid introducing straws, pacifiers, spoons, or fingers into the child's mouth for 7 to 10 days post-surgery to prevent complications. The use of a pacifier should be avoided for at least 2 weeks following the surgical repair to promote proper healing. Additionally, taking oral temperatures should be avoided, and alternative temperature monitoring methods should be utilized to reduce the risk of infection. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect because they could potentially lead to complications or hinder the child's recovery after cleft palate repair.

5. Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement?

• A. Dry dressing
• B. Transparent dressing
• C. Composite dressing
• D. Wet to dry dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.

Similar Questions