Nursing Elites

1. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse assesses the patient for mental status changes. What is the rationale for this intervention?

• A. Decreased cardiac output can cause hypoxia to the brain
• B. Mental status changes may be a side effect of the patient's medication
• C. Mitral regurgitation is a complication associated with some neurological disorders
• D. The patient may be confused about his diagnosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output, assessing for mental status changes is crucial. Decreased cardiac output can lead to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of vital organs, including the brain, resulting in hypoxia. This hypoxia can manifest as mental status changes such as confusion, restlessness, or lethargy. Therefore, monitoring mental status helps in identifying potential hypoxic states and guiding appropriate interventions. The other options are incorrect as they do not directly correlate decreased cardiac output with potential hypoxia-induced mental status changes.

2. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?

• A. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening
• B. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases
• C. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer
• D. Refer the client to a family planning clinic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. The client's behavior places her at high risk for HIV. Testing is the first step in identifying and managing the risk of HIV infection. Early detection allows for timely interventions and better outcomes. While performing tests for sexually transmitted diseases (choice B) is important, addressing the immediate and potentially life-threatening risk of HIV takes precedence. Discussing the risk for cervical cancer (choice C) is not the priority at this time as HIV screening is more urgent. Referring the client to a family planning clinic (choice D) is not the immediate priority given the client's current high-risk behavior and the need to address the immediate threat of HIV infection.

3. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Calcium
• B. Bilirubin
• C. Amylase
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated. Monitoring amylase levels helps assess the effectiveness of therapy in managing the condition. Elevated amylase is a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation. Calcium (Choice A) levels may be affected in pancreatitis, but they are not the primary indicator for evaluating therapy effectiveness. Bilirubin (Choice B) and Potassium (Choice D) levels may also be altered in pancreatitis, but they are not specific markers for monitoring therapy response in acute pancreatitis.

4. When admitting a 64-year-old patient with acute pancreatitis, the healthcare provider should specifically inquire about a history of

• A. diabetes mellitus.
• B. high-protein diet.
• C. cigarette smoking.
• D. alcohol consumption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with acute pancreatitis, alcohol consumption is a significant risk factor and one of the most common causes in the United States. It is crucial to assess alcohol intake as it plays a key role in the development of pancreatitis. While cigarette smoking, diabetes mellitus, and high-protein diets can contribute to various health issues, they are not directly associated with the development of acute pancreatitis.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?

• A. Narrowed QRS complex
• B. Shortened "PR"? interval
• C. Tall peaked "T"? waves
• D. Prominent "U"? waves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened "PR"? interval, and prominent "U"? waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.

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