Nursing Elites

1. The nurse provides home care instructions to the parents of a child with celiac disease. The nurse should teach the parents to include which food item in the child's diet?

• A. Rice
• B. Oatmeal
• C. Rye toast
• D. White bread

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In celiac disease, individuals are intolerant to gluten found in wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Therefore, it is crucial to eliminate these grains from the diet. Rice, corn, or millet are safe alternatives for individuals with celiac disease. Oatmeal is generally avoided unless specifically labeled as gluten-free due to possible cross-contamination. Rye toast and white bread contain gluten and should be avoided in celiac disease. Vitamin supplements may also be necessary to address deficiencies caused by dietary restrictions.

2. A patient in the cardiac care unit is taking bumetanide (Bumex) for heart issues and is also diagnosed with Parkinson's Disease. An unlicensed assistive personnel is assisting with feeding the patient. Which of these foods should the nurse stress for the patient to eat most?

• A. Foods containing the least amount of salt
• B. Foods containing the most amount of potassium
• C. Foods containing the most amount of calories
• D. Foods containing the most amount of fiber

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bumex is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Hypokalemia can be dangerous and lead to various complications. To prevent a hypokalemic crisis, it is crucial to ensure an adequate intake of potassium. Therefore, the nurse should stress the patient to eat foods rich in potassium. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. While monitoring salt intake is important in cardiac patients, the immediate concern with bumetanide use is the risk of hypokalemia, making choice B the most appropriate option.

3. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

• A. Multiple sclerosis
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia nervosa
• D. Systemic sclerosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.

4. A 30-year-old man is being admitted to the hospital for elective knee surgery. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen
• B. Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin
• C. Bowel sounds of 20/minute in each quadrant
• D. Aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin.' Normally, the lower border of the liver is not palpable below the ribs, so this finding suggests hepatomegaly, which could indicate an underlying health issue. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen, bowel sounds of 20/minute in each quadrant, and aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area are all within normal limits for a physical assessment and do not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

5. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

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