Nursing Elites

1. The nurse provides home care instructions to the parents of a child with celiac disease. The nurse should teach the parents to include which food item in the child's diet?

• A. Rice
• B. Oatmeal
• C. Rye toast
• D. White bread

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In celiac disease, individuals are intolerant to gluten found in wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Therefore, it is crucial to eliminate these grains from the diet. Rice, corn, or millet are safe alternatives for individuals with celiac disease. Oatmeal is generally avoided unless specifically labeled as gluten-free due to possible cross-contamination. Rye toast and white bread contain gluten and should be avoided in celiac disease. Vitamin supplements may also be necessary to address deficiencies caused by dietary restrictions.

2. The parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy ask if the infant will be able to control their bladder as they get older. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your child will need catheterization until bladder control is gained.
• B. Your child will be able to control their bladder like other children.
• C. You should potty train your child at the same time you normally would.
• D. Your child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, so urine will drain freely.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect where the infant is born with the bladder located on the outside of the body. Surgical repair typically occurs within the first 1 to 2 days of life. In the following 3 to 5 years post-surgery, urine will drain freely from the urethra due to the absence of a sphincter mechanism. This period allows the bladder to develop capacity as the child grows. Subsequent surgical interventions will be required to establish a functioning sphincter mechanism. Therefore, the correct response is that the child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, leading to urine draining freely. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the physiological process and management of bladder exstrophy.

3. The healthcare provider assesses a patient suspected of having an asthma attack. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. Audible crackles and orthopnea
• B. An audible wheeze and use of accessory muscles
• C. Audible crackles and use of accessory muscles
• D. Audible wheeze and orthopnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B, 'An audible wheeze and use of accessory muscles,' is the correct answer. In asthma, patients commonly present with wheezing due to airway constriction and the use of accessory muscles to aid in breathing. Audible crackles (rales) are more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia, congestive heart failure, or pulmonary fibrosis. Orthopnea, which is difficulty breathing while lying flat, is typically seen in conditions like heart failure or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, rather than asthma. Choice C is incorrect as crackles are not a typical finding in asthma. Choice D is incorrect as orthopnea is not a common clinical manifestation of asthma.

4. A patient presents with vesicles covering the upper torso. Which of the following situations could cause this condition?

• A. Knife fight
• B. Auto accident
• C. Sunburn
• D. Fungal infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vesicles are fluid-filled blisters. In the context of the upper torso, the presentation of vesicles suggests a second-degree sunburn. Sunburn can cause blistering, leading to the formation of vesicles. Choice A, 'Knife fight,' does not align with the presentation of vesicles on the upper torso due to trauma. Choice B, 'Auto accident,' is more likely to cause abrasions or bruises rather than vesicles. Choice D, 'Fungal infection,' typically presents with other symptoms such as redness, itching, or scaling, but not vesicles on the upper torso.

5. During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?

• A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
• B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
• C. Clonidine (Catapres)
• D. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its pregnancy category X classification. It is associated with central nervous system defects, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, prematurity, hemorrhage, and ocular defects when administered at any time during pregnancy. Fetal warfarin syndrome can occur when given during the first trimester. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a pregnancy category C medication, which means there may be risks but benefits may outweigh them. Clonidine (Catapres) is also a pregnancy category C drug, and while animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, there are limited human studies. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol) is classified as a pregnancy category D drug, indicating positive evidence of fetal risk, but benefits may still warrant its use in pregnant women with serious conditions.

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