NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Prep
1. Your patient has finished a 12-ounce can of iced tea and 8 ounces of fresh orange juice. What will you record on the Intake and Output form for this patient's intake?
- A. 20 cc
- B. 20 cm
- C. 600 cc
- D. 600 cm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: You will record 600 cc of fluid intake. There are 600 cc in 20 ounces (12 ounces of iced tea + 8 ounces of orange juice) of fluid intake. Choice A and B are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct conversion of fluid intake from ounces to cubic centimeters. Choice D is incorrect as it provides the measurement in cubic centimeters but does not account for the total fluid intake accurately.
2. A patient's body temperature has varied over the last 24 hours from 97.6 degrees F in the morning to 99 degrees F in the evening. The patient is worried that this change in temperature may indicate the beginning of a fever. Which of the following BEST explains this phenomenon?
- A. The patient definitely has a fever in the evening and should be seen by a doctor.
- B. The patient is experiencing changes related to a diurnal rhythm.
- C. The patient is more than likely taking their temperature incorrectly.
- D. The patient is experiencing changes related to fluctuating daily hormones.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient is experiencing changes related to a diurnal rhythm. Diurnal rhythm is the phenomenon of body temperature fluctuating depending on the time of day. Temperatures taken in the morning are typically lower than those taken throughout the rest of the day. Choice A is incorrect because a single elevated temperature reading in the evening does not definitively indicate a fever. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication of incorrect temperature measurement. Choice D is incorrect as the temperature changes are not related to monthly hormones but rather to the body's natural daily rhythm.
3. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?
- A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
- B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
- C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
- D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.
4. A client who complains of nausea and seems anxious is admitted to the nursing unit. The nurse should take which of the following actions regarding completion of the admission interview?
- A. Help the client to get settled and conduct the interview the next morning when the client is rested
- B. Conduct the interview immediately, directing the majority of the questions to the client
- C. Conduct the interview as soon as uninterrupted time is available to address the client's concerns
- D. Ask the charge nurse to interview the client while the admitting nurse calls the doctor for anti-nausea and anti-anxiety medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with a client who is experiencing nausea and anxiety, it is important to promptly conduct the admission interview to address their concerns. This allows for the collection of accurate data while attending to the client's immediate needs. Delaying the interview until the next morning (Choice A) may not be in the best interest of the client as timely assessment and intervention are essential. Directing questions to the client's spouse (Choice B) may not provide accurate information from the client themselves. Asking another nurse to conduct the interview while administering medications (Choice D) does not prioritize building a therapeutic relationship with the client, which is crucial in addressing their concerns and providing holistic care.
5. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?
- A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
- B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
- C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
- D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.
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